nursing entrance exam questions answers pdf

B.SC Nursing Entrance Exam Question Papers PDF

B.SC Nursing Entrance Exam Question Papers

Those who are looking for the B.Sc Nursing Entrance Exam Previous Question Papers can download them in PDF format from this page. These UP B.Sc Nursing Entrance Exam Question Papers are for the aspirants who applied for the B.Sc Nursing Entrance Exam 2021 .

B.Sc Nursing Entrance Exam 2021, all students can get admission into B.Sc Nursing Course at Uttar Pradesh University of Medical Sciences (UPUMS). As we all know there will be heavy competition for the UP B.Sc Nursing Entrance Exam, so candidates who are interested to score more marks in the Entrance Exam must prepare from these UP B.Sc Nursing Entrance Exam Old Question Papers.

• B.SC Nursing Entrance Exam Paper-1  –   Download
• B.SC Nursing Entrance Exam Paper-2  –   Download
• B.SC Nursing Entrance Exam Paper-3  –   Download
• B.SC Nursing Entrance Exam Paper-4  –   Download
• B.SC Nursing Entrance Exam Paper-5  –   Download
• B.SC Nursing Entrance Exam Paper-6  –   Download
• B.SC Nursing Entrance Exam Paper-7  –   Download
• B.SC Nursing Entrance Exam Physics Previous Year Paper 1       –       Download
• B.SC Nursing Entrance Exam Physics Previous Year Paper 2       –       Download
• B.SC Nursing Entrance Exam Chemistry Previous Year Paper 1   –       Download
• B.SC Nursing Entrance Exam Chemistry Previous Year Paper 2   –       Download

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ATI TEAS 7 Free Practice Tests

Choose an ATI TEAS 7 subject area below to begin practicing.

38 Questions

English Language Usage

37 Questions

Reading Comprehension

45 Questions

50 Questions

🔴 Watch: TEAS 7 Practice Tests Walkthrough – 2024 Edition

Unlock success with our expert guidance.

Walk into your test day with confidence!

Practice with the most accurate questions, the most detailed answer explanations, and the confidence of having a pass guarantee.

ATI TEAS 7 FAQ

The TEAS 7, or Test of Essential Academic Skills Version 7, is a standardized entrance exam used by nursing schools and allied health programs. The test is meant to indicate to the school whether you’re prepared and have the skills needed to succeed in their programs before you start.

The TEAS includes 150 scored questions and 20 unscored questions for a total of 170 total questions. Here’s the breakdown by subject: Reading: 45 total questions (39 scored + 6 unscored) – Key ideas and details (15) – Craft and structure (9) – Integration of knowledge & ideas (15) Math: 38 questions (34 scored + 4 unscored) – Numbers and algebra (18) – Measurement and data (16) Science: 50 questions (44 scored + 6 unscored) – Human anatomy & physiology (18) – Biology (9) – Chemistry (8) – Scientific reasoning (9) English and Language Usage: (33 scored + 4 unscored) – Conventions of standard English (12) – Knowledge of language (11) – Using Language and Vocabulary to Express Ideas in Writing  (10) Note that you won’t know which questions are scored during the TEAS exam. The unscored questions are mixed in with the others, so you should approach every question as if it counts towards your final score.

The TEAS 7 consists mostly of multiple choice questions. But there are 4 new questions types that have been added to the TEAS 7. Multiple Select: There will be four or more answer choices, and there might be more than one correct option. The question will instruct you to “select all that apply.” Be careful, because any incorrect choices selected or any correct options left unselected will lead to the question being marked as incorrect. Fill in the Blank: You will not be provided any answer options. These questions test your knowledge and ability to recall information without being guided by provided options.  Hot Spot: You will be given an image with 2-5 clickable hotspots. Click on the area that the question is asking about to answer these correctly. Ordered Response: These questions ask you to accurately arrange a set of provided responses. Each question will present you with four to six responses, which you must carefully drag and place from a box on the left to a corresponding box on the right.

When scheduling your TEAS (Test of Essential Academic Skills) exam, it’s advisable to plan at least 6 weeks of studying, as recommended by ATI. This time frame allows you to thoroughly prepare for the various sections of the exam. Additionally, consider that score reports take 72 hours to post after taking the test. This could be crucial if you have application deadlines to meet. So, when determining the best time to schedule your TEAS exam, factor in at least 6 weeks for preparation and an additional 3 days for the score report. Align this with any deadlines or requirements from the nursing programs you are applying to, to ensure that you give yourself the best chance for success.

Rescheduling your exam depends on the location of your test. Here’s an overview: Online: Rescheduling or refunding is not possible without documented emergency proof. Once purchased, the date is final. In case of emergencies like death in the family or medical issues, exceptions can be made by contacting [email protected] with detailed information and documentation. At your school: Similar to at-home exams, rescheduling or refunding requires a documented emergency. Contact [email protected] with the required details. At a PSI Testing Center: You can reschedule your exam up to 48 hours before the start date/time via the ATI website or by calling PSI Candidate Services at 833-537-1330.

Yes, the TEAS is always proctored, whether you take it online, at your school, or at a PSI Testing Center.  Online: If you choose to take the test at home, a remote proctor will monitor you through your computer’s webcam to ensure the integrity of the exam. At school: You’ll be in a room with a live proctor present to oversee the exam. At a PSI Testing Center: You’ll be in a room with a live proctor present to oversee the exam. Proctoring is used to maintain the security and fairness of the test, so all examinees are monitored during the examination process.

Yes, but only 1 piece. If you test on location, you will be given 1 piece of scratch paper. If you test at home, you are allowed to use scratch paper, but you must show it to the online proctor, including the amount of scratch paper you have.

You’ll want to bring some essential items with you, including: Valid Photo ID: This could be a driver’s license, passport, or other government-issued identification with your photograph and signature. It’s used to verify your identity. Admission Ticket or Confirmation: If applicable, bring the admission ticket or confirmation email you received when you registered for the test. Water and Snacks: Depending on the test center’s policy, you may be able to bring water and snacks for breaks. Note: Personal items such as bags, mobile phones, calculators (unless provided by the test center), and other electronic devices are typically not allowed in the testing room. There may be designated areas to store these items during the test, but it’s best to check with the testing center ahead of time.

Yes, you can send your TEAS exam results (or TEAS Transcript) to more than one school by purchasing additional transcripts or Transcript Credits through ATI. You will see an option to send transcripts below your TEAS exam results.

A passing score for the TEAS test varies by school, and you should contact your school directly to find out the specific score considered passing. Most schools typically require at least a 70%. However, it’s important to note that merely achieving the passing grade may not be enough, as some schools admit students based on the highest scores. Therefore, you should aim for the highest score possible, not just the minimum passing grade.

About 40% of students fail the TEAS on their first try. If you fail the TEAS, it’s important not to be too discouraged.  Here’s what you can typically expect: Retake Opportunities: Many schools and testing centers allow you to retake the TEAS after a waiting period. Be sure to check with your specific institution for their retake policy, as it may vary. Evaluate Your Performance: Review your score report to identify areas where you may need improvement. Focus on those areas in your study preparation for the next attempt. Consider Your Options: Talk to the admissions office of the school you’re applying to. Depending on the school, a lower score may not necessarily disqualify you from admission. Seek Additional Help: Consider enrolling in a preparatory course or finding resources that can help you understand and master the areas where you struggled. Note: If you sign up for NurseHub and complete our TEAS courses, you get a pass guarantee. Our comprehensive courses are designed to help you succeed and feel confident on test day. We’re here to support you every step of the way! ➡️ Learn more about our pass guarantee here .

ATI uses multiple versions of the TEAS test, so will not encounter the same test twice. However, each variation follows the same structure and breakdown.

It varies from person to person. While ATI recommends allocating six weeks for preparation, the actual time needed largely depends on your familiarity with the material. Some have succeeded with just a week of study. We suggest beginning with our free practice test to identify areas needing more focus, which will guide your study plan. Ensure you start early enough to avoid feeling rushed.

We make our practice tests as close as possible to the real TEAS 7 exam so you are prepared as possible when you take it. NurseHub teaches you all of the concepts that you will see on the exam so you feel prepared and confident going in.

The TEAS is composed of four main subject areas, each further divided into specific sub-content areas: 1. Reading – Key ideas and details – Craft and structure – Integration of knowledge & ideas 2. Math – Numbers and algebra – Measurement and data 3. Science – Human anatomy & physiology – Biology – Chemistry – Scientific reasoning 4. English and Language Usage – Conventions of standard English – Knowledge of language – Using Language and Vocabulary to Express Ideas in Writing

There is a time limit for each section of the exam: Reading: 55 minutes (45 questions) Math: 57 minutes (38 questions) Science: 60 minutes (50 questions) ELU: 37 minutes (37 questions) The total time for the exam is 209 minutes, which is just under 2.5 hours. With 170 questions in 209 minutes, you have about 1 minute and 13 seconds per question. Time is limited, so preparation is key. That’s why our TEAS prep includes 10 full test simulations and thousands of practice questions to boost your accuracy and speed.

You can sign up for the TEAS on ATI’s website: https://www.atitesting.com/teas/register

Yes, you can take the TEAS at home online, or in-person at your school or nearest PSI Testing Center.  If you take the TEAS at home, you’ll need a computer with a webcam and microphone, and a stable internet connection. A remote proctor will monitor you through your computer’s webcam to ensure the integrity of the exam. Before you begin, you may also need to show your workspace to the proctor, so make sure to have everything set up according to the guidelines provided by the testing agency.

The cost to take the TEAS (Test of Essential Academic Skills) can vary depending on the location and institution, with prices typically ranging from $60 to $140. It’s advisable to check with the specific testing center or the school to which you are applying, as they may have additional fees or offer discounts for their students.

You are allowed a 10-minute bathroom break after completing the Mathematics section of the TEAS exam.  During this break, you cannot access personal items like cell phones or notes, and taking excessive time may lead to a review of your exam.  After the break, you can proceed to the Science section.  The exam sections follow this order: Reading, Mathematics, Science, and English and Language Usage.

Yes, most schools permit the use of a calculator during the test, but you cannot bring your own. Instead, you will be provided with a basic four-function (add, subtract, multiply, divide) calculator on your screen, similar to the calculator app on your phone or computer.

Scores should be posted within 48 business hours. If you are testing at a PSI testing center, your ATI TEAS Exam results can take up to 72 business hours to appear in your account.

Your TEAS score report will include three types of scores, each calculated differently: Total Score: This score is calculated using a method called equating. Some questions are weighted more heavily, and the total score reflects a combination of easier and harder questions. It’s the overall measure of how you performed on the entire exam. Content Area Scores: These scores are calculated in the same way as the total score but are specific to each of the four main content areas (Reading, Math, Science, and English). They show how well you did in each subject . Sub-Content Area Scores: These scores represent the percentage of questions you answered correctly in specific sub-areas within the content areas. For example, if you answer 4 out of 8 chemistry questions correctly, your Chemistry Sub-Content Area score would be 50%. In summary, all these scores range from 0.0% to 100%, but they’re calculated differently. The Total and Content Area Scores, in particular, are adjusted to give more weight to more challenging questions.

According to the makers of the exam, 40% of people fail the TEAS on their first attempt.

The number of times you can take the ATI TEAS exam depends on individual nursing or allied health school policies. While ATI doesn’t set a limit on attempts, many schools do. Some institutions allow multiple retakes, possibly with a waiting period in between, such as 30 days or even 1 year. You should consult directly with the schools you’re interested in for their specific guidelines.

40% of students take the TEAS test more than once, often due to not properly reviewing the concepts before taking the exam. The biggest mistake you can make is to not study.

Step 1. Take a diagnostic test to see how you would score today. Math Diagnostic Test Science Diagnostic Test Reading Diagnostic Test English Language Usage Diagnostic Test Step 2. Understand your strengths and weaknesses with a detailed score report. After you finish each diagnostic test, you’ll receive a personalized score report that breaks down your performance in each question category. Any category where you scored less than 80% will appear in red and will link directly to the corresponding TEAS 7 lesson, making it easy for you to focus on the areas you need to improve upon the most. Step 3. Quickly improve your score with our comprehensive TEAS courses. Review each of our 4 TEAS 7 courses. Each course includes step-by-step video lessons, activities, hundreds of realistic questions, and full-length practice tests.  Step 4. Connect with our Learner Success Team for one-on-one help. For any learners preparing for the TEAS 7 exam and facing challenges with specific questions or concepts, reaching out to our dedicated Learner Success Team is the perfect solution! Our team of experts is here to provide personalized assistance and guidance to help you conquer any difficulties you encounter. Whether you need clarification on complex topics, additional practice, or strategies to approach tricky questions, our Learner Success Team is committed to supporting your academic journey. Don’t hesitate to contact us – we’re here to ensure you feel confident and well-prepared for success on the TEAS 7 exam! Step 5. Go into your test with confidence with our pass guarantee! You will receive a certificate upon completing each TEAS course. This certificate is your pass guarantee. If you earn a course completion certificate and don’t pass, we will refund your money AND pay for you to take the test again.

NurseHub FAQ

The problem with free stuff you find online is that there are no guarantees that it is accurate, up-to-date, or good enough to help you pass on your first try. We talk to folks every day who failed on their first try because they tried studying just the free stuff they found online but were ultimately underprepared. Don’t risk being surprised and disappointed on test day. By signing up with NURSEHUB, you can rest easy knowing you have exactly what you need in order to pass on your first try.

Absolutely! You can switch to any other computer or mobile device at any time and continue practicing from where you left off. You’ll need to sign in with the same e-mail address and password that you used to sign up. All your progress and passing scores will be available on any device because that data is stored on our server for you.

NurseHub’s professional educators analyze and break down every concept and topic your exam will test you on to craft accurate, challenging questions to prepare you for your exam. They then carefully build out thorough, detailed, step-by-step answer explanations so that you can effectively and efficiently learn the content and excel on exam day.

Yes, your subscription will automatically renew each month until you decide to cancel.

Yes, you can cancel at any time by going to your account settings or reaching out to our learner success team !

Study guides are a fine resource, but they fall short in 4 areas:: 1. Paperback study guides cannot simulate the real testing environment. NurseHub’s simulations, unlike written tests in books, mirror the look and feel of the actual computerized exam, offering a true-to-life preparation experience. 2. Traditional study guides can be cumbersome and slow to navigate. NurseHub’s digital platform eradicates this inconvenience, allowing quick access to extensive practice questions and detailed answers without flipping through pages. 3. Paperback guides are often bulky and lack the flexibility to include comprehensive content. NurseHub’s online resources are not only more convenient but also provide an expansive array of practice questions. 4. Study guides are usually updated only once a year, risking outdated content if the test changes mid-year. NurseHub consistently updates our material to ensure relevance, so you always have access to the most current information.

Immediately after completing our secure checkout, you will be automatically signed in to your account. You will receive an email with a receipt and your payment details. All the Premium Prep features will be available to you right away, and you can leave and come back to study at any time simply by signing back in with the e-mail address and password you create during checkout.

No. We take great care in developing realistic and challenging questions, answers, and detailed explanations to teach you all the content you need to know to pass your exam; however we cannot know, nor could we legally or ethically provide the exact questions and answers you will see on your exam. NurseHub is a site developed by teachers for you to learn – not to memorize.

NurseHub’s TEAS Review comes with a pass guarantee. If you successfully complete the review, we promise you a passing grade on the ATI TEAS 7. To claim, just send us an email or chat message with your full name and the email address used at purchase along with a photo of your score report with the minimum score required at your school. Then, we will check your account to make sure you’ve successfully completed all the practice tests. Once that is confirmed, will refund up to three more months of your membership, plus pay for your re-test.

You will be charged once you sign up and then every month until you decide to cancel your subscription.

You can send us an email at [email protected] or talk to one of our learner success representatives right now!

Ready to get started?

One membership gets you access to all of NurseHub’s courses. Sign up to start studying for the TEAS now.

Follow us on social media for even more engaging and helpful content!

NEX Practice Test

Prepare for your test with realistic questions.

The Nursing Entrance Exam (NEX) is used by nursing schools to determine if an applicant has the skills and aptitudes necessary to do well in a program of nursing education.

Take a free NEX practice test by clicking “Start Test” above!

NEX Exam Outline

The NEX contains 163 multiple-choice questions, 18 of which are unscored, and you will be given 3 hours to complete it (60 minutes per section).

The test is split into three sections.

I. Verbal (58 questions)

This section is divided into two subsections, and you will have 1 hour to complete all of the questions.

The passages will be either general or scientific in nature and will test your ability to fully grasp the information presented. The difficulty of the passages increases as you go through this subsection, starting at an 8th-9th-grade reading level and ending at a basic college reading level.

II. Mathematics (45 questions)

This section is divided into four subsections, and you will have 1 hour to complete all of the questions.

• Place value
• Percentages
• Ratios and proportions
• Order of operations (PEMDAS)

Measurement (14 scored questions) The questions in this subsection assess your ability to use and convert between different measurement systems. Some of the specifics include:

• The metric system
• The US standard system
• Dimensional analysis and conversions

Algebra (7 scored questions) The questions in this subsection assess your understanding of basic algebraic concepts and your ability to solve basic algebraic equations. Some of the specifics include:

• Solving linear equations for one variable
• Simplifying algebraic expressions
• Graphing linear equations

Data & Information (7 scored questions) The questions in this subsection assess your ability to interpret and analyze data presented in different formats. Some of the specifics include:

• Reading and interpreting tables and graphs
• Basic statistical measures
• Probability

III. Science (60 questions)

This section is divided into five subsections, and you will have 1 hour to complete all of the questions.

• Cellular structure and function
• Body systems
• Homeostasis and feedback mechanisms
• Scientific terminology

Chemistry (5 scored questions) The questions in this subsection focus on how matter behaves and interacts, with an emphasis on medication application. Some of the specific topics include:

• Elements, atoms, and molecules
• Chemical reactions
• Acids and bases
• Organic chemistry

Anatomy (11 scored questions) The questions in this subsection assess your understanding of the blueprint of the human body and the location of major organs. Some of the specifics include:

• Directional terms (superior, inferior, medial, lateral)
• Body planes and sections
• Organ systems
• Major organs and their functions

Physiology (11 scored questions) The questions in this subsection assess your knowledge of how the body’s systems work together to maintain health and applying that knowledge to patient care. Some of the specifics include:

• Function of body systems
• Homeostatic imbalances
• Cellular processes
• The immune system

Health (8 scored questions) The questions in this subsection assess your understanding of how to maintain health and prevent disease to optimize patient outcomes. Some of the specifics include:

• Fluid and electrolyte balance
• Hygiene and infection control
• Environmental health
• Health promotion and disease prevention

NEX Registration

While the exam itself is the same no matter where you take it, it is going to be administered by the school that you are applying to. So you will register for your appointment through the school. The exam fee also depends on where you are taking it but will usually range from $60 to $100.

When you register, you will have a range of dates to choose from. It is offered several times each month. Many locations will also offer a range of start times on each date so that you can find something that fits best with your schedule.

Online NEX Prep Course

If you want to be fully prepared, Mometrix offers an online NEX Prep Course. The course is designed to provide you with any and every resource you might want while studying. The NEX Course includes:

• Review Lessons Covering Every Topic
• 450+ NEX Practice Questions
• 250+ Review Videos
• More than 650 Digital Flashcards
• Money-back Guarantee
• Free Mobile Access

The NEX Prep Course is designed to help any learner get everything they need to prepare for their NEX exam. Click below to check it out!

NEX Test Scores

When you receive your score report, you will see what percentage of questions you answered correctly in each section of the test, as well as a composite score and overall percentile rank. Since each nursing program has its own standard for acceptable scores, there is no standard passing or failing score.

How many questions are on the NEX exam?

There are 163 questions on the exam.

How long is the NEX exam?

The time limit for the exam is 3 hours.

What is the passing score for the NEX exam?

There is no set passing score for this exam. The nursing program of your choice will decide what scores they accept as passing.

How much does the NEX exam cost?

The fee for the exam will be different depending on where you take the test. Generally, it ranges from $60 to $100.

By Kate Nockunas

Kate has been Mometrix’s Nursing and Medical Editor for over four years. She has a bachelor’s degree in Communications from Vanderbilt University, a bachelor’s degree in Nursing from Marymount University, and a master’s degree in Education from Johns Hopkins. Kate is a critical care registered nurse who still works occasionally in the ICU and PACU.

Nursing School Entrance Exams – Home

by Mometrix Test Preparation | Last Updated: June 28, 2024

On this page:

Nursing Pre-Entrance Exam Online Course

Prepare with our Nursing Exam Study Guide and Practice Questions. Print or eBook. Guaranteed to raise your score. Get started today!

Nursing Exam Flashcards. Proven Nursing test flashcards raise your score on the Nursing entrance test. Guaranteed.

Your nursing pre-entrance exam (PAX-RN) is very important to your future, so most students invest in a Nursing Exam Study Guide and many choose to supplement with Nursing Exam Flashcards. Given what’s at stake, taking responsibility for your own preparation is the prudent course.

If you don’t need to go through our Nursing Pre-Entrance Exam online course, click here for basic information about the  Nursing Pre-Entrance test and PSB tests , and the TEAS ® Test .

Please review our basic information about these different exams. Nursing schools use different exams for screening applicants across the country. Make sure you know the acronym of the exam you are taking.

We have provided the Nursing Pre-Entrance Exam resources and the tools. The rest is up to you- the best teacher is the person who knows you best- YOU!

Online PAX Prep Course

If you want to be fully prepared, Mometrix offers an online PAX Prep Course. The course is designed to provide you with any and every resource you might want while studying. The PAX Course includes:

• Review Lessons Covering Every Topic
• 1,100+ PAX Practice Questions
• More than 300 Digital Flashcards
• Over 280 Instructional Videos
• Money-back Guarantee
• Free Mobile Access

The PAX Prep Course is designed to help any learner get everything they need to prepare for their PAX exam. Click below to check it out!

Take the self assessment module quizzes below (make notes of your scores and remember which revealed significant gaps in your learning):

• Basic Algebra
• Intermediate Algebra
• Advanced Algebra
• Averages and Rounding
• Estimation and Sequences
• Fractions and Square Roots
• Author's Purpose
• Basic Grammar
• Intermediate Grammar
• Advanced Grammar
• Intermediate Math
• Advanced Mathematics
• Measurement
• Percents and Ratios
• Basic Reading Comprehension
• Intermediate Reading Comprehension
• Advanced Reading Comprehension
• Reading for the Main Idea
• Reading Vocabulary
• Vocabulary1
• Vocabulary2

Nursing Entrance Exam Questions And Answers

The nursing entrance exam holds a comparable significance in the nursing field to what the SAT represents in general education. Are you poised to shine in nursing questions and answers? Validate your readiness by immersing yourself in this quiz to evaluate your knowledge. Just as nursing requires dedication and preparation, this quiz challenges your understanding. With a spectrum of questions ranging from easy to moderate and challenging, this quiz mirrors the diversity of topics encountered in the nursing entrance exam. By engaging with it, you gain a yardstick to measure your grasp of essential concepts and identify areas that Read more may need additional focus. Utilize this quiz as a potent tool for refining your exam readiness. Sharing it with peers may foster collaborative learning. Approach this quiz with determination, as each question draws you closer to achieving your nursing aspirations. Best wishes on your journey to nursing excellence!

Nursing Entrance Questions and Answers

What is the outer layer of the kidney.

Rate this question:

What is the middle layer of the kidney?

Renal Medulla

Renal Pelvis

Deficiency of which vitamin can lead to irritability, loss of appetite, and beriberi?

Vitamin B12

What are the plasma-soluble substances that are secreted by gram-positive bacteria called?

None of the above

What are the soluble proteins secreted by bacteria that enter host cells called?

Effector Proteins

What are the components of the Gram-negative bacterial cell wall called?

What causes direct damage to the cells.

Neurotoxins

Enterotoxin

Leukocidins

What causes intestinal symptoms?

Enterotoxins

What is an organism with chloroplast in its cell?

Heterotroph

Primary consumer

What property of water allows someone to fill a glass slightly above the rim without the water flowing over?

Specific gravity

Surface tension

What are the spaces between neurons?

Interneurons

Which group of chemicals is not normally found in most living things?

Carbohydrates

Nucleic acid

With what system is the alimentary canal associated?

Spinal cord

Digestive system

Urinary tract

Birth canal

What purpose do the numerous villi in the small intestine serve?

Secrete enzymes for digestion

Absorb water from dissolved foods

Secrete hydrochloric acid to dissolve food

Provide greater surface for absorption

What is the bending of light called when it passes obliquely from air to water?

Diffraction

Which of the following organelles is not involved in protein synthesis?

Mitochondrion

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

What must proteins be changed to in order to be absorbed by cells?

Amino acids

Fatty acids

What is a neuron called that transmits impulses from the receptors to the spinal cord?

Motor neuron

Associative neuron

Interneuron

Sensory neuron

Which group of organisms helps prevent the accumulation of organic waste in nature?

How is the sound perceived when the eardrum is made to vibrate more rapidly.

Louder in intensity

Softer in intensity

Higher in pitch

Lower in pitch

In a field of pure white asters, a grower noticed a single blue aster. How could the grower test whether this change affected the gamete-producing cells of the plant?

Self pollinate the flower and plant the resulting seeds

Examine the blue petals under an electron microscope

Perform a chemical analysis to find the nature of the blue pigment

Perform vegetative propagation on a cutting of the plant

A human egg will develop into a female if it is fertilized by a sperm containing which chromosome?

X chromosome

Y chromosome

Xy chromosome

Xxy chromosome

In a food chain involving grass, grasshoppers, birds, and mammals, the original source of energy is

Chlorophyll

Which of these are good sources of protein?

Cooked oatmeal

A reading on the Celsius scale is 5, a reading on the Fahrenheit would be

If a car 's rate of change of velocity is negative, the car is.

Speeding up

Maintaining a constant speed

Slowing down

Which of these nitrogenous bases may be found in RNA but not DNA?

A substance with a ph of 8 is a.

Strong acid

Strong base

Binary fission in paramecium and budding in yeast cells are examples of

Asexual reproduction

Sexual reproduction

Spontaneous generation

Which of these substances forms an alkaline solution in water

Certain seaweeds accumulate in iodine in a concentration as much as a million times greater than the surrounding ocean. how must this intake be accomplished.

Reverse osmosis

Active transport

Passive transport

Hydrogen can be prepared in the lab by combining Zn and HCl - the resulting reaction the metallic zinc.

Is changed to another element

Reacts with the water in acid

Replaces the combined hydrogen in the acid

Serves as a catalyst

Which of the following organisms has a nutritive process most similar to that of animals

The solubility of a solid in a liquid generally increases with.

Increase in temperature

Increase in pressure

Decrease in temperature

A decrease in pressure

Which of these substances has the highest boiling point

In humans, if the diaphragm is pushed upward, there is a decrease in chest volume. the decrease is followed by.

Increase in pressure in the chest cavity and inhalation

Increase in pressure in the chest cavity and exhalation

A decrease in pressure in the chest cavity and inhalation

A decrease in pressure in the chest cavity and exhalation

Which of these biological processes includes the other three

Cell respiration

Krebs cycle

Electron transport chain

Anaerobic splitting of glucose

 A 5-year-old and her father each lifted identical chairs from the floor to a tabletop. Which person did the most work?

The 5 year old

Both did equal amount of work

Not enough info

An excess of which of these ions tend to make a solution acidic

In the classification of two organisms which of the following is the best evidence of a close relationship.

Similar number and arrangement of bones

Similar sequence of amino acids in their proteins

Similar methods of sexual reproduction

Similar methods of cell respiration

In Einstein's equation e=mc2 which does c represent

The quantum #of atoms involved

The number of coulombs

The number of calories of heat

The speed of light

Suppose cube 'a' is 10 cm along each edge and cube 'b' is 5 cm along each edge. What is the relationship of the volume of cube 'a' to that of cube 'b'?

Cube a has 2x the volume of cube b

Cube a has four x the volume of cube b

Cube a has 6x the volume of cube b

Cube a has 8x the volume of cube b

The organ in the human female that develops to nourish the embryo is called

Fallopian tube

Which of these substances is a product of cellular respiration in animals?

What would be a likely result if all the bees and butterflies in an area were destroyed.

Birds would more food

More plant seeds would be produced

More flowers would bloom

Fewer plant seeds would be produced

The tiny projections in the small intestine adapted for absorption are called

A student wants to grow a bacterial culture. which of these environments is best suited for growing most kinds of bacteria.

A lighted window at 72 deg f

A refrigerator at 45 f

An incubator at 37

A freezer at 10

A closed container of hydrogen gas is warmed from 20c to 25c. If the volume remains the same, what will happen to the pressure in the container?

It will remain the same

It will decrease

It will fluctuate

It will increase

Most of the work done by the human kidney occurs in the

Equal armed balance is balanced when 20 washers are on one side, and 10 bolts are on the other. four bolts are added to one side. how many washers must be added to the next side to maintain balance.

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Your Guide to Nursing Entrance Exams

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Drawing on their firsthand industry expertise, our Integrity Network members serve as an additional step in our editing process, helping us confirm our content is accurate and up to date. These contributors:

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Explore our full list of Integrity Network members.

Are you ready to earn your online nursing degree?

If you are applying to nursing school, you will likely be required to take an entrance exam.

The type of exam you take depends on the program you are applying to and the degree you want to earn. In this guide, we introduce some of the common nursing entrance exams you might come across. If you want to know more about the testing and application process for a specific nursing program, contact your nursing school of choice and request details on their application process.

Popular Online RN-to-BSN Programs

Learn about start dates, transferring credits, availability of financial aid, and more by contacting the universities below.

What Is a Nursing Entrance Exam?

Nursing school is notoriously difficult, so schools devised entrance exams to assess prospective students’ academic aptitude. Though they are far from perfect, these exams are designed to help determine your likelihood of success in a nursing program. Schools use them to assess your knowledge in different academic areas, including mathematics, reading comprehension, and verbal skills.

Some tests on our list also have personality components that assess your preferred learning style.

Nursing entrance exams are taken before you apply to nursing school, and your score is just one data point in your overall application. All schools weigh these scores differently. The most common nursing school entrance exams include:

• National League for Nursing Pre-Admission Exam (PAX)
• Nursing Entrance Test (NET)

Kaplan Nursing School Admission Test

Test of essential academic skills exam (teas), health education systems, inc. admissions assessment (hesi a2).

• PSB Aptitude for Practical Nursing Exam
• PSB Registered Nursing School Aptitude Exam
• PSB Health Occupations Aptitude Exam

Nursing Pre-Admission Exam (PAX)

The PAX is one of the most commonly used nursing school entrance exams. It is designed for registered nurses (RN) and licensed practical nurses (LPN) who are pursuing a nursing certificate, associate degree in nursing (ADN), or bachelor of science in nursing (BSN).

The PAX assesses verbal abilities, mathematical skills, and understanding of scientific topics. It includes 160 multiple-choice questions covering three subject areas:

• 60 questions in reading comprehension and word knowledge
• 40 math questions
• 60 science questions

Test takers have two hours and five minutes to complete the entire exam.

Many companies, such as Mometrix, offer free practice questions and study guides for students taking this test.

You can register for and take the PAX through the schools you apply to. Exam fees typically cost $60-$100.

Nursing Entrance Exam (NEX)

Overhauled in 2024 by the National League for Nursing , the NEX is a nursing school admission exam designed for LPN and RN programs. The exam is divided into three sections: verbal (58 questions), math (45 questions), and science (60 questions), with each section taking about an hour to complete.

The exam costs $52.50 for an in-person administration and $68.50 to take the test remotely. Similar to PAX, which is also administered by the National League for Nursing, this test evaluates mathematics and reading speed.

The math portion of the test includes concepts often taught in high school math courses. Students often spend extra time studying for this part of the exam.

The Kaplan nursing school exam evaluates student likelihood of success in LPN or RN programs. It does not require previous nursing education.

This test has four sections of 91 multiple-choice questions. It evaluates test-takers writing, reading, math, science, and critical thinking skills. The Kaplan nursing school admission test takes about three hours to complete and costs $50-$70. Learners usually need a passing score of 60%-70% on the exam. However, each school may have different scoring standards.

Test takers often choose to brush up on high school-level topics in reading, writing, math, and science and can utilize various study materials, including Kaplan study guides and YouTube instructional videos , to supplement the textbook content.

The TEAS exam is another common nursing school test for RNs and LPNs. The multiple-choice exam contains four sections:

• Mathematics
• English and language use

The test requires 209 minutes to complete. Some online materials to prepare for the TEAS exam include TEASpracticetest.com’s practice tests and study guides and ATI’s TEAS prep products .

Test takers complete a total of 170 questions drawn from high school-level knowledge in each area. The reading section contains 53 questions on passages, maps, and graphs. The 36-question math section explores general problem-solving, algebra, statistics, and geometric calculations. The 53 science questions cover physiology, anatomy, life and physical sciences, and general scientific reasoning. Lastly, the English portion tests understanding of standard language conventions and vocabulary.

You can take the TEAS nursing school entrance exam online, at designated testing centers, or through the school where you wish to apply. The TEAS exam requires a $35-$70 fee.

The HESI A2 nursing school entrance exam is primarily for prospective RN and LPN program applicants. The test has eight sections: reading comprehension, vocabulary and general knowledge, grammar, math, physics, biology, and anatomy and physiology.

HESI exam questions draw on high school-level knowledge, placing extra emphasis on science topics. The HESI exam also includes sections on learning styles and personality.

Learners prepare for the HESI exam with a variety of resources, including Mometrix’s HESI A2 Secrets Guide . Learners can also find practice exams for the HESI A2 test through test-guide.com and BoostPrep.com . While the exam fee varies, most schools charge $40-$65.

PSB Aptitude for Practical Nursing Examination

Designed by the Psychological Services Bureau (PSB), this nursing entrance exam was developed for those pursuing a nursing career. According to PSB, the Aptitude for Practical Nursing Examination addresses prerequisite knowledge for practical or vocational nursing careers.

The exam contains five broad sections:

• Academic aptitude
• Information in the natural sciences
• Judgment and comprehension in practical nursing situations
• A vocational adjustment index.

Popular preparation materials for the PSB nursing school entrance exam include the Mometrix Secrets Study Guide and the Ascencia PSB Practice Nursing Exam Study Guide . Applicants can expect to pay a $25 exam fee.

PSB Registered Nursing School Aptitude Examination

The PSB Registered Nursing School Aptitude Examination is designed for aspiring RNs. It is a 105-minute, 360-question test made up of five multiple-choice sections:

• Reading comprehension
• Natural sciences
• A vocational adjustment index

The academic aptitude section features 30 questions in three parts: verbal, arithmetic, and nonverbal. Mometrix describes the nonverbal section as a type of IQ test requiring test-takers to find the relationships and differences between objects.

Many learners spend extra time studying for the exam’s verbal and arithmetic portions. Students can prepare for the PSB RN nursing school entrance exam with the Mometrix Secrets Study Guide and the tried-and-true flashcards . The study guide also includes methods for improving one’s nonverbal skills. PSB RN test takers usually pay $25-$45 to sit for the exam.

PSB Health Occupations Aptitude Examination

Schools use the PSB Health Occupations Aptitude Examination (PBS HOAE) to assess students pursuing training in healthcare, including nurses. This exam is commonly used for students enrolling in an ADN or BSN program.

The exam evaluates prerequisite knowledge in reading comprehension, spelling, and the natural sciences and provides a vocational adjustment analysis.

This adjustment analysis evaluates test takers’ behavioral and personality characteristics to determine their likelihood for success as a nurse. Candidates pay $25-60 to sit for the PSB HOAE nursing school exam. Learners can take advantage of iPrep’s free practice materials and affordable online course to put their best foot forward on the PSB HOAE.

Many nursing programs require prospective students to take an entrance exam. There are multiple tests, including the PAX, TEAS, HESI, Kaplan, and PSB exams.

The exact exam content varies, but most include some form of assessment in mathematics and communication skills. Some exams also have personality components meant to assess your learning style.

While these exams are important, remember that no exam alone can determine your nursing potential. If you’re struggling to prepare for a nursing school entrance exam, use all your resources, such as study guides, exam preparation courses, YouTube review videos, tutors, and any resources your school offers.

And remember: you can always try again if you don’t score high enough on your first attempt.

Resources and Tips for Nursing Students

HESI A2 Exam Guide

For nursing school applicants facing the HESI A2 examination, our guide offers help, including test content and registration information, study tips, and preparation aids.

TEAS Exam Guide

Many nursing schools include the TEAS exam as an admission requirement. This guide offers tips on how to pass the TEAS.

Study Tips and Resources for Surviving Nursing Finals

Nursing finals can be an extremely stressful time for students. These expert tips from Dr. Audrey Auer can help you minimize your stress and study more efficiently.

Page last reviewed on May 8, 2024

Are You Ready to Earn Your Online Nursing Degree?

Whether you’re looking to get your pre-licensure degree or taking the next step in your career, the education you need could be more affordable than you think. Find the right nursing program for you.

Fundamentals of Nursing NCLEX Practice Quiz (600 Questions)

Welcome to your NCLEX practice questions for fundamentals of nursing. For this nursing test bank set, test your competence on the concepts of nursing fundamentals. This quiz aims to help student nurses develop their critical thinking skills when answering questions related to the fundamentals of nursing.

Fundamentals of Nursing Nursing Test Bank

This section is the practice quiz for fundamentals of nursing that can help you think critically and augment your review for the NCLEX . There are 600+ NCLEX -style practice questions in this nursing test bank . We’ve made a significant effort to provide you with the most informative rationale, so please be sure to read them. Use these nursing practice questions as an alternative for Quizlet or ATI.

Quiz Guidelines

Before you start, here are some examination guidelines and reminders you must read:

• Practice Exams : Engage with our Practice Exams to hone your skills in a supportive, low-pressure environment. These exams provide immediate feedback and explanations, helping you grasp core concepts, identify improvement areas, and build confidence in your knowledge and abilities.
• You’re given 2 minutes per item.
• For Challenge Exams, click on the “Start Quiz” button to start the quiz.
• Complete the quiz : Ensure that you answer the entire quiz. Only after you’ve answered every item will the score and rationales be shown.
• Learn from the rationales : After each quiz, click on the “View Questions” button to understand the explanation for each answer.
• Free access : Guess what? Our test banks are 100% FREE. Skip the hassle – no sign-ups or registrations here. A sincere promise from Nurseslabs: we have not and won’t ever request your credit card details or personal info for our practice questions. We’re dedicated to keeping this service accessible and cost-free, especially for our amazing students and nurses. So, take the leap and elevate your career hassle-free!
• Share your thoughts : We’d love your feedback, scores, and questions! Please share them in the comments below.

Quizzes included in this guide are:

Recommended Resources

Recommended books and resources for your NCLEX success:

Disclosure: Included below are affiliate links from Amazon at no additional cost from you. We may earn a small commission from your purchase. For more information, check out our privacy policy .

Saunders Comprehensive Review for the NCLEX-RN Saunders Comprehensive Review for the NCLEX-RN Examination is often referred to as the best nursing exam review book ever. More than 5,700 practice questions are available in the text. Detailed test-taking strategies are provided for each question, with hints for analyzing and uncovering the correct answer option.

Strategies for Student Success on the Next Generation NCLEX® (NGN) Test Items Next Generation NCLEX®-style practice questions of all types are illustrated through stand-alone case studies and unfolding case studies. NCSBN Clinical Judgment Measurement Model (NCJMM) is included throughout with case scenarios that integrate the six clinical judgment cognitive skills.

Saunders Q & A Review for the NCLEX-RN® Examination This edition contains over 6,000 practice questions with each question containing a test-taking strategy and justifications for correct and incorrect answers to enhance review. Questions are organized according to the most recent NCLEX-RN test blueprint Client Needs and Integrated Processes. Questions are written at higher cognitive levels (applying, analyzing, synthesizing, evaluating, and creating) than those on the test itself.

NCLEX-RN Prep Plus by Kaplan The NCLEX-RN Prep Plus from Kaplan employs expert critical thinking techniques and targeted sample questions. This edition identifies seven types of NGN questions and explains in detail how to approach and answer each type. In addition, it provides 10 critical thinking pathways for analyzing exam questions.

Illustrated Study Guide for the NCLEX-RN® Exam The 10th edition of the Illustrated Study Guide for the NCLEX-RN Exam, 10th Edition. This study guide gives you a robust, visual, less-intimidating way to remember key facts. 2,500 review questions are now included on the Evolve companion website. 25 additional illustrations and mnemonics make the book more appealing than ever.

NCLEX RN Examination Prep Flashcards (2023 Edition) NCLEX RN Exam Review FlashCards Study Guide with Practice Test Questions [Full-Color Cards] from Test Prep Books. These flashcards are ready for use, allowing you to begin studying immediately. Each flash card is color-coded for easy subject identification.

Recommended Links

An investment in knowledge pays the best interest. Keep up the pace and continue learning with these practice quizzes:

• Nursing Test Bank: Free Practice Questions UPDATED ! Our most comprehenisve and updated nursing test bank that includes over 3,500 practice questions covering a wide range of nursing topics that are absolutely free!
• NCLEX Questions Nursing Test Bank and Review UPDATED! Over 1,000+ comprehensive NCLEX practice questions covering different nursing topics. We’ve made a significant effort to provide you with the most challenging questions along with insightful rationales for each question to reinforce learning.

39 thoughts on “Fundamentals of Nursing NCLEX Practice Quiz (600 Questions)”

Hello. For Quiz number 2, number 75: It will still mark as wrong even though you chose the right answer which is letter C. Other than that, this website is really helpful. ❤️

Thanks for letting us know. We have corrected the item.

This is perfect

Thanks for all

for quiz #5 question 7 is marking the correct answer wrong

VERY GOOD LEARNING MODULE AND USEFUL FOR UPDATING THE KNOWLEDGE IN NURSING FIELD

In Fundamentals of Nursing NCLEX Practice Questions Quiz #1: 75 Questions, question number 8 asks: Kubler-Ross’s five successive stages of death and dying are: The correct answer is missing a coma, making it incorrect. C. Denial, anger, bargaining, depression acceptance

Hi, can i clarify quiz #7 Question 12: The nurse caring for a client with a pneumothorax and who has had a chest tube inserted notes continuous gentle bubbling in the suction control chamber. What action is most appropriate for the nurse?

Your correct answer is: B. Do nothing since this is an expected finding.

But it should be intermittent, right? : D. Check for an air leak because the bubbling should be intermittent.

B is correct because it talks about suction chamber, contiuous gentle bubbling. You can also check it here https://youtu.be/WfoXkJM6XHw .

Thank you so much for this educating guide and stepdown Nurse Matt Vera

its help me a lot to practice my skill and comprehension and analyzing the situation

you all are the best

Thank you, Matt Vera. I need to pass the NCLEX test.

Question 72 option B. Fresh food and whole-wheat toast is it suppose to say fresh fruit??

Wow! This site is superb Well done Matt Vera Keep it up. High five✋

Quiz 2 Question 45: The order for examining the abdomen is incorrect. First you inspect, the asculate. Why? percussion or palpating the abdomen before asculating ensures that the examiner is listening to undisturbed bowel sounds. This is different from the rest of the body,

Hello, Q2-45 asks for the assessment technique for all body systems “EXCEPT” the abdomen.

Do you not provide the answer and the explanation of each question anymore?

How soon will the performance issues be rectified??

Hi Anna, hopefully, this week. We’re just waiting for guidance from our developers.

Hey Matt can you take a look at Fundamentals of Nursing NCLEX Practice | Quiz #5 question 29. It indicates a rectal examination and all the answers are urine related? Thanks

Hi Tony, yes, because the question is asking about prostate cancer and a digital rectal exam (DRE) is a test to palpate the prostate for enlargement or masses.

How can i save my answers when I haven’t finished the quiz?

Sorry but we don’t have that function. You can click on the Quiz Summary > Finish Quiz anytime and evaluate your answers. Next time you visit, simply continue on the item where you left off.

Hi, set 2 question 57 put all rails up . Is that considered as a restraint for the patient?

Hello, I don’t understand quiz 3 number 8 question. I answered B because except to remove resident flora, yet the answer is wrong

Hello, the answer “A” is correct. It says “expected” not except.

Hi, in question no. 45 about abdominal assessment. I answered inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation in order, but I was marked wrong.

Hi Aiko, kindly read the question again. ;)

sorry, my bad. thank you.

Inspection palpatio percussion auscultation

I think that this quiz is excellent. Those who pass should receive a certificate of achievement.

A patient is catheterized with a #16 indwelling urinary (Foley) catheter to determine if:

A. Trauma has occurred. B. His 24-hour output is adequate. C. He has a urinary tract infection. D. Residual urine remains in the bladder after voiding.

THE answer says C. Should that say His 24- hour output is INADEQUATE because if it is adequate he would not need a foley correct?

Very informative question, content and website!!! Thank you!

These are so helpful! Thank you! There are two questions where I believe the correct option is stated incorrectly. Question 21 states “ His 24-hour output is adequate,” it should be “inadequate.” Quest 71 states “ Fresh Food and Whole Wheat Toast,” it should be “Fresh Fruit.”

Are the links working? every time I click on a link, it cycles and then brings me back to the same page so I don’t understand. I clicked on all the quizzes and the 600 question book but I’m not being brought to any questions so I’m just confused as to why I’m not getting to any questions when I’m clicking the links.

Hi Sharell, the links do work but open on a new tab/window.

Miss for practice because tomorrow my paper My preparation is minimal

Leave a Comment Cancel reply

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Home » Nursing » AIIMS Nursing Question Papers (PDFs Available) – AIIMS Nursing Entrance Exam Previous Year Papers with Solutions

AIIMS Nursing Question Papers (PDFs Available) – AIIMS Nursing Entrance Exam Previous Year Papers with Solutions

AIIMS Nursing Question Papers have been published. So you can now download AIIMS Nursing Entrance Exam Previous Year Papers PDF here from aglasem. The AIIMS Nursing question paper 2022, 2021, 2020 , and past years have actual questions asked in All India Institute Of Medical Science Nursing Entrance Exam ( AIIMS Nursing Entrance Exam ) by AIIMS . Therefore you can easily score high marks and rank by solving these previous year question papers of AIIMS Nursing .

AIIMS Nursing Question Papers

Previous year question papers of AIIMS Nursing are important study material. Use them to know AIIMS Nursing Entrance Exam syllabus, exam pattern, difficulty level. This is how AIIMS Nursing past year solved papers help you prepare. The All India Institute Of Medical Science Nursing Entrance Exam is a National level Nursing entrance exam for admission to B.Sc. (H) Nursing, Post Basic B.Sc. Nursing, B.Sc. Paramedical in AIIMS New Delhi and other AIIMS.

• AIIMS Nursing 2023 Question Paper
• AIIMS Nursing 2022 Question Paper

More previous year question papers

AIIMS Nursing Question Papers – An Overview

Key details of the question papers and the exam are as follows.

AIIMS Nursing Question Papers PDF

You must be looking for portable document format of the AIIMS Nursing exam Question Papers . Here is what you should know.

• You can download the AIIMS Nursing previous year papers PDF at aglasem and aiimsexams.ac.in .
• You can also use AIIMS Nursing Question Paper PDF to prepare for other Nursing entrance exams .
• To get AIIMS Nursing Previous Year Question Papers Download PDFs , you can use mobile or computer with internet.
• However after downloading AIIMS Nursing previous year question paper pdf with answers , you solve them anytime offline also.

AIIMS Nursing Previous Year Question Paper with Answers

The previous year question papers of AIIMS Nursing Entrance Exam with answers refer to the questions with correct answers. After solving the Nursing entrance exam question paper, check answers to know how many you got right. Thereafter use AIIMS Nursing preparation books to study those portions you are weak in again.

AIIMS Nursing Previous Year Question Paper with Solutions

Similarly solved AIIMS Nursing question papers contain step by step solutions to all questions. They are also very helpful in AIIMS Nursing preparation . Therefore you can use AIIMS Nursing Previous Year Question Papers with Solutions as a critical AIIMS Nursing study material . Moreover you can use Last 10 Years AIIMS Nursing Previous Year Question Papers Book for all solutions.

Qs. Where can I get AIIMS Nursing Previous Year Papers PDF Free Download?

Ans. You can get the previous year question papers of AIIMS Nursing from this page on aglasem.

Qs. Who prepares the AIIMS Nursing Question Paper?

Ans. The All India Institute Of Medical Science (AIIMS) sets the question paper of AIIMS Nursing Entrance Exam exam .

Qs. How can I download AIIMS Nursing previous year question papers?

Ans. You can download the AIIMS Nursing past year papers by simply clicking the AIIMS Nursing Entrance Exam question paper pdf link and then clicking the download button.

Qs. Are questions repeated in AIIMS Nursing Question Papers?

Ans. Usually AIIMS does not repeat questions from previous year AIIMS Nursing question papers. However type of questions are repeated in the All India Institute Of Medical Science Nursing Entrance Exam.

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AIIMS Nursing 2023 Question Paper – Download Here

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School of Nursing Past Questions and Answers (Download PDF)

• Post author: Study Admin
• Post published: May 21, 2024
• Post category: Past Questions
• Post comments: 0 Comments

Have you been searching to download your school of nursing past questions and answers in order to prepare for the entrance exams? If so, search no more.

All school of nursing entrance exam past questions and answers are now available on our website for fast download. All you have to do is to follow the instructions on how to get your own school of nursing aptitude test past questions without delay.

This web page contains series of school of nursing and midwifery past questions papers for all school of nursing entrance examinations. All past questions on our online store are original and up-to-date. Feel free to scroll down and find your desired school of nursing aptitude test past questions papers.

School of Nursing Past Questions and Answers PDF

Dear prospective nursing student, are you currently planning to study in any of the reputable schools of nursing and midwifery in Nigeria? If yes, then you need to download our up-to-date school of nursing past questions and answers in order to prepare for your school entrance examination.

We have exam past questions for all schools of nursing and midwifery in Nigeria. These past questions are up-to-date and getting a copy would keep you on the right track.

These past questions will expose you to the modus operandi of the entrance examination such as the nature and pattern of your preferred school of nursing entrance examination, how many questions will be given, how the questions will be set, and the time you will be given to answer those questions.

Before getting admission into any nursing school in Nigeria, you need to pass the entrance examination to prove that you are adequately qualified to be in the field.

So if you are so eager to become a nurse or any medical scientist, then you need to prepare well for your preferred school of nursing entrance examination using their past questions.

We work tirelessly to compile all past questions for each of the schools of nursing and midwifery in Nigeria in order to help all prospective undergraduate nursing students pass their entrance examinations.

We have past questions and answers for the following nursing schools:

• Abia State School of Nursing Umuahia and Amachara
• Abia State University Teaching Hospital (ABSUTH) School of Nursing
• Aminu Dabo College of Nursing Sciences
• Anambra State College Of Health Technology Obosi
• Adamawa State College of Nursing and Midwifery Yola
• Abubakar Tafawa Balewa University Teaching Hospital (ATBUTH) School Of Nursing
• Adamu Adamu College of nursing sciences
• Ahmadu Bello University Teaching Hospital (ABUTH) School Of Nursing
• Akwa Ibom State School of Nursing
• Alex Ekwueme Federal University Teaching Hospital Abakaliki (AEFUTHA) School of Nursing
• Anambra State College Of Health Technology
• Archbishop Charles Heerey Memorial College of Nursing Science
• Bauchi State College of Nursing and Midwifery
• Bayelsa State School of Nursing and Midwifery
• Benue State School of Nursing, Makurdi and Mkar
• Borno State College of Nursing and Midwifery Maiduguri
• Bowen University Teaching Hospital (BUTH) School of Nursing
• Gombe State College of Nursing and Midwifery
• College of Nursing Sciences Ihiala
• College of Nursing Sciences Tambuwal
• Chukwuemeka Odumegwu Ojukwu University Teaching Hospital (COOUTH) school of nursing Nkpor
• Cross River State Schools of Nursing and Midwifery Itigidi
• Dako College of Nursing and Midwifery
• Delta State College of Health Technology Ofuoma
• Delta State School of Midwifery Asaba and Sapele
• Delta State Schools of Nursing Agbor, Eku, and Warri
• Department of Nursing Science, PAMO University of Medical Sciences
• Ebonyi State College of Nursing and Midwifery
• ECWA School of Nursing Egbe
• ECWA School of Basic Midwifery Egbe
• Edo State College of Nursing Sciences Benin
• Ekiti State University Teaching Hospital (EKSUTH) school of nursing and midwifery
• ESUTH School of Nursing, Parklane, Enugu
• Ezeala School of Nursing and Midwifery
• Fatima College of Nursing Sciences Sifawa
• FCT School of Nursing and Midwifery Gwagwalada, Abuja
• Federal Teaching Hospital Ido-Ekiti School of Nursing
• Hill College of Nursing Sciences
• Holy Rosary Emekuku School of Nursing
• Imo State College Of Nursing And Midwifery Orlu
• IQRA College of Nursing Sciences Dutse, Jigawa State
• Iyi-Enu Mission Hospital School of Nursing
• Jafad College of Nursing Science Oru-Ijebu
• Jigawa State College of Nursing and Midwifery
• Jigawa State College of Nursing Hadejia
• Kaduna State College of Nursing
• Kano State School Of Nursing and Midwifery
• Katsina State College of Nursing and Midwifery
• Kebbi State College of Nursing
• Kogi State College of Nursing and Midwifery Obangede
• Kwara State College of Nursing and Midwifery Ilorin
• Kwara State College of Nursing Oke-Ode
• Lagos State College of Nursing and Midwifery Igando
• Lagos University Teaching Hospital (LUTH) School of Nursing
• LAUTECH College of Nursing
• Mater Misericordiae Hospital, School of Nursing Afikpo
• Mbano College of Nursing and Midwifery
• Mercy College of Nursing
• Nasarawa State School of Nursing and Midwifery Lafia
• Niger State College of Nursing Sciences, Bida, Kontagora, and Basic Midwifery Minna
• Nigerian Army College of Nursing Yaba
• Nnamdi Azikiwe University Teaching Hospital (NAUTH) Nursing School
• OAUTHC School of Nursing and Midwifery
• Ogoja School of Nursing and Midwifery
• Ogun State School of Nursing and Midwifery, Ijebu-Ode, Ilaro, and Abeokuta
• Osun State School of Nursing Osogbo
• Oyo State College of Nursing and Midwifery Eleyele
• Plateau State College of Nursing and Midwifery
• POGIL College of Health Technology
• Sacred Heart Hospital School of Nursing Lantoro
• Sajo College of Nursing Sciences Birnin-Kebbi
• School of Nursing Baptist Medical Centre Saki
• Shehu Sule College of Nursing and Midwifery
• Sokoto State College of Nursing and Midwifery
• St. Gerard’s Catholic Hospital School of Nursing
• St. Mary’s Joint Hospital School of Nursing Amaigbo
• School of Basic Midwifery, St. Camillus Hospital Uromi
• Taraba State College of Nursing and Midwifery Jalingo
• University College Hospital Ibadan (UCH) School of Nursing
• University of Calabar Teaching Hospital (UCTH) School of Nursing
• Usmanu Danfodiyo University Teaching Hospital (UDUTH) School of Nursing
• UEC College of Nursing Ochadamu
• University of Ilorin Teaching Hospital (UITH) School of Nursing
• University of Benin Teaching Hospital (UBTH) School Of Nursing
• University of Maiduguri Teaching Hospital (UMTH) School of Nursing
• University of Medical Sciences Ondo (UNIMED)
• University Of Nigeria Teaching Hospital (UNTH) School of Nursing
• Zamfara State School of Nursing and Midwifery Gusau
• St. Charles Borromeo Hospital College of Nursing
• Peace Land School of Nursing

The past questions for each of the above schools are in PDF format and will be sent to your email address or Whatsapp Number so that you can prepare for your examination.

We hope your school of choice is on the above list. If yes, simply indicate your school of choice when contacting us and we will send you the past questions and answers for that particular school. We wish you good luck and hope you gain admission this year.

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Nursing Exam Questions and Answers PDF (2024)

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📚 Nursing School Entrance Exam Past Questions and Answers

You Can Also Download Post UTME Past Questions and Answers PDF

Here is the Original School of Nursing Past Questions and Answers for all Nursing Schools in Nigeria, this is to enable you get prepared for the upcoming entrance examination. We have made the past questions and answers available so everyone will be able to gain access to it and prepare ahead of time for the entrance examination.

Preparation Subjects for Nursing School Entrance Examination in Nigeria

You will be writing the following subjects in your entrance examination:

• English Language
• Mathematics
• General Knowledge

By studying the past questions and answers, you can confidently prepare for the entrance examination and significantly improve your chances of achieving a high score. This, in turn, will greatly enhance your prospects of securing admission into any school of nursing.

(2024 EDITION) Download the Updated Copy (67 Pages)

The School of Nursing Past Questions & Answers Will Be Sent to Your Email Address After Payment

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The Past Questions is for All School of Nursing in Nigeria Including

• Abuja School of Nursing
• Akwa Ibom School of Nursing
• Alex Ekwueme School of Nursing
• Amaigbo School of Nursing
• Abeokuta School of Nursing
• Adazi Nnukwu School of Nursing
• Bayelsa State School of Nursing
• Bishop Shanahan School of Nursing
• Delta State School of Nursing
• Edo State School of Nursing
• Emekuku School of Nursing
• FCT School of Nursing
• Iyienu School of Nursing
• Kwara State School of Nursing
• LUTH School of Nursing
• NAUTH School of Nursing
• OAU School of Nursing
• Ogun State School of Nursing
• Osun State School of Nursing
• Rivers State School of Nursing
• Sacred Heart School of Nursing
• Seventh Day Adventist School of Nursing
• St Gerard School of Nursing
• St Philomena School of Nursing
• Tombia School of Nursing
• UCH School of Nursing
• UDUTH School of Nursing
• UMTH School of Nursing
• UNTH School of Nursing
• UCTH School of Nursing
• UBTH School of Nursing
• UNILORIN School of Nursing

E.T.C Including Every Other Nursing Schools Not Listed Here. GET THE BEST NURSING SCHOOL PAST QUESTIONS NOW AND SCORE HIGH IN YOUR ENTRANCE EXAM.

Sample Nursing School Past Questions and Answers on Biology

1. Which of these animals is not metamerically segmented?

• (A) tape worm
• (B) earthworm
• (C) Crayfish
• (D) Shark (Answer)

2. In human reproduction, the zygote formed as a result of fertilization gets attached to the wall of the uterus. The process is called

• (A) sexual reproduction
• (B) cohesion
• (C) pregnancy
• (D) implantation (Answer)

3. Kwashiokor is caused by severe deficiency of

• (D) proteins (Answer)

4. The Glottis is the opening which leads to the

• (A) oesophagus
• (B) larynx (Answer)
• (C) nostrils
• (D) pharynx

5. A grasshopper respires by means of its

• (A) lung-hooks
• (C) tracheal tubes (Answer)
• (D) antennae

6. Refrigeration as a method of food preserve has one of the following characteristic

• (A) kills all the bacteria
• (B) kills most of the bacteria
• (C) makes the bacteria inactive (Answer)
• (D) dries food

7. Angiosperms and gymnosperms belong to the plant group known as

• (A) schizophyta
• (B) byrophyta
• (C) pteridophyta
• (D) spermatophyla (Answer)

8. Which of the following are differentia into true roots, stems and leave?

• (B) schizophyta
• (C) pteridophyta (Answer)
• (D) bryophyte

9. Which of the following is a plant excretory products?

• (B) cytokinin
• (C) resin (Answer)
• (D) aminoacid

10. The greatest contribution to genetic studies was made by

• (A) Thomas Morgan
• (B) Gregory (Answer)
• (C) Charles Dawin
• (D) Robert Hooks

Sample Nursing School Past Questions and Answers on Chemistry

1. Methane is a member of the homologous series called

• (A) Alkenes
• (B) Alcohols
• (D) Alkanes (Answer)

2. An example of a strong electrolyte is

• (A) Ethyl acetate
• (B) Ethanol
• (C) Glucose
• (D) Sodium formate (Answer)

3. Oxidation is the process of

• (A) gain of electrons
• (B) loss of electrons (Answer)
• (C) gain of hydrogen
• (D) loss of oxygen

4. Which of the following compounds and elements would sublime on exposure to the atmosphere

• (B) Sulphur
• (C) Phosphurus
• (D) Iodine (Answer)

5. When plastics and packaging materials made from chloroethane are burnt in the open, the mixture of gases released into the atmosphere is most likely to contain

• (B) Chlorine
• (C) hydrogen chloride (Answer)

6. The relatively high boiling points of alkanols are due to

• (A) ionic bonding
• (B) aromatic character
• (C) covalent bonding
• (D) hydrogen bonding (Answer)

7. Which of the following gases is the most dangerous pollutant?

• (A) hydrogen sulphide (Answer)
• (B) carbon (iv) oxide
• (C) Sulphur (iv) oxide
• (D) carbon (II) oxide

8. The method that can be used to convert hard water to soft water is

• (A) chlorination
• (B) passage over activated charcoal
• (C) the use of an ion-exchange resin (Answer)
• (D) aeration.

9. The salt that reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce a pungent smelling gas which decolorizes acidified purple potassium tetraoxomanganate (vii) solution is

• (B) Na2S03 (Answer)

10. When the two end alkyl groups of ethyl ethanoate are interchanged the compound formed is known as

• (A) methylethanoate
• (B) ethylpropanoate
• (C) methylpropanoate (Answer)
• (D) propylethanoate.

Sample Nursing School Past Questions and Answers on Physics

1. Which of the following units is fundamental?

• B. Kelvin (Answer)

2. The angle between the magnetic meridian and the geographic meridian at a locality in or the earth is the

• (A) longitude of the locality
• (B) angle of inclination at the locality
• (C) latitude of the locality
• (D) angle of declination of the locality. (Answer)

3. Hot water is added to three times its mass of water at 10°C and the resulting temperature is 20°C. What is the initial temperature of the water.

• (C) 50°C (Answer)

4. When heat is applied to one end of a metal rod, the molecules of the other end soon begin to vibrate with greater amplitude than before because heat has been transferred by

• (A) radiation
• (B) convection
• (C) conduction
• (D) evaporation (Answer)

5. The plane mirrors in a kaleidoscope are usually placed

• (A) at an angle of 60° (Answer)
• (B) parallel to one another
• (C) perpendicular to one another
• (D) at an angle of 45°

6. Dispersion of light by a glass prism is due to the

• (A) different hidden colours of the glass
• (B) different speeds of the various colour in glass (Answer)
• (C) defects in the glass
• (D) high density of glass

7. Electrical power is transmitted at a high voltage rather than low voltage because the amount of energy loss is reduced due to

• (A) heat dissipation (Answer)
• (B) production of eddy currents
• (C) excessive current discharge
• (D) excessive voltage discharge

8. A lamp is rated 240V, 60W of the resistance if the filament is

• (A) 960Ω (Answer)

9. In a free fall a body of mass kg 1 kg drops from a height of 125m from rest is 5s. How long will it take another body of mass 2kg to fall from rest from the same height? (g = 10ms-2)

• (A) 5s (Answer)

10. The efficiency of a machine is always less than 100% because the

• (A) work output is always greater than the work input
• (B) load lifted is always greater than the effort applied
• (C) effort applied is always greater than the load lifted
• (D) velocity ratio is always greater than the mechanical advantage (Answer)

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GNM Question Paper 2023 Previous Year Question Papers, Sample Papers

GNM Question Paper 2023: This post represents the question papers/ sample papers for General Nurse Midwifery (GNM) course.  It also contains entrance exam question papers. Through this post, you will know about GNM & ANM syllabus & exam patterns. The previous year’s GNM question papers will help the aspirants understand the level of the upcoming GNM Question Paper 2023. Read the entire post to grab the data about GNM Previous Year Question Papers.

On this page, you can check all the questions asked in the General Nurse exam and download the GNM 2023 question paper pdf from the official portal. If you have appeared in the GNM 2023 exam then you can make proper use of these question papers to match answers in the answer key. Moreover, if you are appearing for future GNM entrance exams then these sample papers are very necessary for General Nursing & Midwifery. The question paper will be provided with answers/ solutions too. Go through this entire complete article to know all the information about GNM Question Paper 2023, answers and solutions, 1st-year question papers, 2nd-year question papers, etc.

GNM Question Paper 2023 Highlights

GNM Ke Baad Doctor Kaise Bane? जीएनएम के बाद डॉक्टर कैसे बनें?

Parul University B.Sc Nursing Admission 2023 (Open) – Apply Here!!!

Gnm question paper.

1) Which of the following natural calamities is not a type of storm?

b) Earthquake

c) Hurricane

2) Choose the person of brinjal known as the Bt brinjal has been developed. The objective of this is

a) To make it post resistant

b) To improve its taste and nutritive qualities

c) To make it drought resistant

d) To make its shelf-life longer

3) Carboxylic acid group can be discovered by

a) Sodium bisulphate test

b) Fehling’s solution test

c) Tollen’s reagent

d) NaHCO3 ­

4) Where does Mahatma Gandhi get his inspiration for Civil Disobedience from?

c) Confucius

5) Who one is the author ‘A Long Way’ ?

a) RK Narayan

b) APJ Abdul Kalam

c) PV Narashima Rao

d) Dalal Lama

6) Raga Kameshwari was composed by

a) Ustad Amjad Ali Khan

b) Uday Shankar

c) Pandit Ravi Shankar

d) None of the above

7) Define the following.

a) Psychotherapy

b) Echopraxia

c) Confabulation

d) Lumbar Puncture

7. Fill Up the blanks.

a) Misinterpretation of sensory input is called as ____,

b) Psychoanalysis was introduced by _____,

c) For ______ and lactating mothers drug is not advised.

d) ________ is the term used for compulsive stealing.

e) Schizoprenia was introduced by in _______.

8. Choose the following statements whether they are True or False.

a) Tardive dyskinesia is an easily reversible form of E.P’S.

b) A delusion is a disorder of perception.

c) Behaviour problems are the common sign psychiatric illness in children.

d) Antipsychotic drugs are directed for the tratment of epilepsy.

e) Displacement is placing criticism for difficulties upon others or attributing

9. Write short notes on any two of the following given below:

a) Functions of autonomous nervous system.

b) Pre frountal leucotomy.

c) Role of Nurses in community psychiatry.

d) Organic psychosis.

10. Define Psychiatric nursing.

11. Write the qualities of the psychiatric nurse. .

12. Explain the principles of psychiatric nursing

13. Define Mania.

14. Describe the types of mania.

15. Define occupation theraphy.

16. How it helps in the treatment of psychiatric patient?

17. Define EeT.

18. Define Mental mechanism.

19. Mention the types of mental mechanisms.

20. Describe any three mental mechanisms with suitable examples.

21. Write short notes on any 3.

a) Ethics of nursing. b) Record. c) Mentally healthy person. d) Barrier Nursing. e) Cross infection.

22. Write the full form of abbreviations.

a) H.I.V. b) U.I.P. c) T.F.A. d) V.V.M. e) R.C.H.P.

23. Fill in the blanks.

a) Widely open anterior fontanelle is seen in __________. b) Children behaviours are abnormal due to ________ . c) Impetigo is caused by __________. d) Bleeding gum is found in __________deficiency. e) In haemolytic anaemia __________is given.

24. Write the full form of abbreviations.

a) B.C.G. b) B.H.C. c) P.P.B.S. d) I.R.D.P. e) I.N.C.

25. Write shorts on any 3.

a) Kangaroo medical care b) APGAR Score c) Phototherapy d) Marasmus e) Congenital Anomalies

West Bengal GNM Exam Question Paper

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Nursing School Entrance Exam Past Questions And Answers PDF

Here you can download nursing school entrance exam questions and answers (PDF) for all nursing schools in Nigeria, this is to enable you get prepared for the upcoming screening examination. We have made the past questions and answers available so everyone will be able to get it and prepare ahead of time for the screening examination.

School of Nursing Past Questions and Answers PDF Sample

Which of the following gases dissolves in water vapour to produce acid rain during rainfall?

• (b) Carbon (II) Oxide
• (c) Nitrogen
• (d) Sulphur (IV) Oxide (ANSWER)

Water for town supply is chlorinated to make it free from

• (a) Bad odour
• (b) Bacteria (ANSWER)
• (c) Temporary hardness
• (d) Permanent hardness

Which of the following is not a homogenous mixture.

• (a) Filtered sea water
• (b) Soft drink
• (c) Flood water (ANSWER)
• (d) Writing ink

There is a large temperature interval between the melting point of a metal because

• (a) Metals have very high melting points
• (b) Metals conduct heat very rapidly
• (c) Melting does not break the metals bond but boiling does (ANSWER)
• (d) The crystal lattice of metal is easily broken

The characteristic reaction of carbonyl compounds is

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• (a) Substitution
• (b) Elimination
• (c) Addition
• (d) Saponification (ANSWER)

An example of a polysaccharide is

• (a) Dextrose
• (b) Mannose
• (c) Glucose D
• (d) Starch (ANSWER)

Which of the following oxides of nitrogen is unstable in air

• (b) NO (ANSWER)

Safety matches contain surphur and

• (a) Potassium-trioxochlorate (ANSWER)
• (b) Potassium-trioxonitrate
• (c) Charcoal
• (d) Phosphorus

If a sound wave goes a cold-air region on a hot-air region, its wavelength will

• (a) Increase
• (b) Decrease (ANSWER)
• (c) Decrease then increase
• (d) Remain constant

Question 10

The inner diameter of a small test tube can be measured accurately using a

• (a) Micro meter screw wave
• (b) Pair of dividers
• (c) Metre rule
• (d) Pair of vernice calipers (ANSWER)

Question 11

When the temperature of a liquid is increased, its surface tension

• (a) Decreases (ANSWER)
• (b) Increases
• (c) Remains constant
• (d) Increase then decreases

Question 12

A man stands 4m in front of a plane mirror. If the mirror is moved 1 m towards him and his new image is

• (c) 6m (ANSWER)

Question 13

The operation of an optical fibre is based on the principle of

• (a) Dispersion of light
• (b) Interference of light
• (c) Refraction of light (ANSWER)

Question 14

The phenomenon whereby the water droplets in the atmosphere combine with dust particles in air to reduce visibility is

• (d) Fog (ANSWER)

Question 15

If a distance from a point source of sound is doubled, by what factor does the intensity decrease?

• (a) 4.00 (ANSWER)

Question 16

Transverse waves can be distinguished from longitudinal waves using the characteristic of

• (a) Diffraction
• (b) Refraction
• (c) Polarization (ANSWER)
• (d) Reflection

Question 17

Which of the following is an organ?

• (a) Guard cell
• (b) Liver (ANSWER)
• (c) Xylem bundle

Question 18

The division of a body into two equal halves along a longitudinal plane is called

• (a) Bilateral symmetry (ANSWER)
• (b) Transverse section
• (c) Radial symmetry
• (d) Longitudinal section

Question 19

Bacteria multiply rapidly by means of

• (a) Budding
• (b)Fragmentation
• (c) Binary fusion (ANSWER)
• (d) Spore formation

Question 20

A green snake in green grass is able to escape notice from predators because of its

• (a) Warning colouration
• (b) Disruptive colouration
• (c) Cryptic colouration (ANSWER)
• (d) Counter shading

Question 21

Plants tend to prevent overcrowding by means of effic i ent

• (a) Pollination
• (b) Seed dispersal (ANSWER)
• (c) Seed germination
• (d) Water germination

Question 22

Genetic counseling is important when a marriage is planned between a

• (a) Rh woman and Rh’ man
• (b) RTi woman and Rh+ man (ANSWER)
• (c) Rh+ woman and RiY man
• (d) Rh+ and Rh+ man

Question 23

The supporting tissue of xylem is not poorly developed in

• (a) Grassland plants
• (b) Desert plants
• (c) Mangrove swamp plants
• (d) Submerged water plants (ANSWER)

Question 24

A feature associated with the Y- chromosome in human is

• (a) Long eyelashes
• (b) Prominent fingernails
• (c) Facial hairs (ANSWER)
• (d) Enlarge breast

Question 25

Paternity disputes on most accurately be resolved through the use of

• (a) Finger printing
• (b) Blood group typing
• (c) DNA analys i s (ANSWER)
• (d) Tongue-rolling

Question 26

The causative agent of typhoid fever is

• (a) Shigella
• (b) Entamoeaba
• (c) Salmonella (ANSWER)
• (d) Escherishia

How to Get the School of Nursing Exam Past Questions and Answers PDF

The nursing school entrance examination past questions and answers can be gotten online through past questions vendors. However, the most reliable platform to get the original school of nursing past questions and answers is samphina.com.ng as the sell original academic materials online including nursing project topics and materials for final year students in Nigeria.

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• Sunday, August 25, 2024
• nursing quiz

100 Important Nursing Exam Questions and Answers

Table of Contents

1. Thin superficial compact layer of decidua’s covering the blastocyst is called as? A. Decidua basalis B. Decidua capsularis C. Decidua parietalis D. Decidua Vera 2. the First case of Covid positive case in India reported in? A. Kerala B. Tamilnadu C. Gujarat D. Maharashtra 3. The epithelial tissue which is found in the uterine tubes is? A. Squamous B. Ciliated C. Columnar D. simple

4. The part of the fetus which occupies the lower pole of the uterus is called? A. Lie B. Presentation C. Denominator D. Position 5. Low levels of maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein levels are found in A. Open neural tube defect B. Down syndrome C. Multiple pregnancies D. Rh-isoimmunisation 6. Passive movement of the head due to untwisting of the neck sustained during internal rotation is called? A. Flexion B. Extension C. Restitution D. Descent 7. Most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage A. Bleeding disorders B. Abruptio placenta C. Placenta previa D. Atonic uterus 8. The type of abnormality where the umbilical cord is attached to membranes is called? A. Battledore placenta B. Velamentous placenta C. Circumvallate placenta D. Placenta marginata 9. The total lung capacity in a healthy adult male is approximate? A. 500 mL B. 5000 mL C. 6000 mL D. 6000 L 10. The ideal roller bandage application for body parts where the thickness varies, such as over the forearm, is? A. Simple spiral B. Figure of eight C. Reverse spiral D. Divergent Spica 11. The external rotation of the hip in the supine position, is prevented by using? A. Bed cradle B. Bedboard C. Trochanter roll D. Knee rest 12. In postural drainage ‘supine in Trendelenburg’s position is given to drain secretions from? A. Anterior segment of both lower lobes of lungs B. Posterior segment of both lower lobes of lungs C. Lateral segment of the left lower lobe D. Lateral segment of right lower lobe 13. A simple and cost-effective method for reducing the risk of hypostatic pneumonia in a bedridden patient is? A. Antibiotics B. Nebulization C. Frequent change of positions D. Humidified oxygen 14. When transporting a patient with intercostal drainage (ICD) tubes the nurse should be aware that? A. Clamp the chest tube and keep the drainage system below the chest B. Clamp the chest tube and keep the drainage system on the trolley C. Do not clamp the chest tube and keep the drainage system below the chest D. Do not clamp the chest tube and keep the drainage system on the trolley 15. Which among the following is an example of an isotonic intravenous solution? A. Dextrose normal saline B. 10% Dextrose C. 0.45% NaCl D. Ringer’s Lactate 16. WHO declared the 2019-novel Coronavirus outbreak as a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC) on? A. January 30, 2020 B. January 13, 2020 C. January 23, 2020 D. January 27, 2020 17. First death due to COVID was reported in which district in Kerala? A. Kasaragod B. Ernakulam C. Trivandrum D. Malappuram 18. In Hildegard Peplau’s Interpersonal Relations Model, the focus is on which of the following? A. Individual B. Community C. Larger society D. Family 19. Which of the following cells of the body are in almost constant mitosis? A. Nerve cells B. Stomach cells C. Muscle cells D. Renal cells 20. In which of the following clients is a rectal temperature most usually contraindicated? A. Client who has had a myocardial infarction B. Client with Parkinson’s disease C. Client who is prone to seizures D. Client with neuropathology associated with diabetes

Nursing Exam Questions and Answers

21. Which of the following people have the largest percentage of water in their bodies? A. Fat men B. Lean men C. Lean women D. Fat women 22. A complete set of chromosomes containing all the genetic information of an individual is called? A. Their genome B. Their genotype C. Their autosome D. Their sequence 23. The location of a specific gene on a chromosome is called? A. The gene position B. The gene location C. The gene pocus D. The gene locus 24. Brownish black pigmented area in the midline of the abdomen of a pregnant woman extending from xiphisternum to symphysis pubis? A. Striae gravidarum B. Chloasma gravidarum C. Linea alba D. Linea nigra 25. In meiosis, how many daughter cells are produced? A. 8 B. 6 C. 4 D. 2 26. Which hormone, produced by the ovaries, inhibits the secretion of FSH and LH? A. Progesterone B. Estrogen C. Inhibin D. GnRH 27. The acrosome of sperm contains? A. Mitochondria B. Lysosomal enzymes C. Nuclear material D. All of the above 28. Which blood group can be transfused into an O Rh− patient? A. Rh− B. Rh+ C. AB Rh+ D. AB Rh− 29. What is the first line of defense in any immune response? A. Anatomical, mechanical and chemical barriers B. B- and T-lymphocytes C. Antibodies D. Macrophages 30. Creatinine is a metabolic waste product excreted in urine and derived from? A. Liver B. Muscle C. Bone D. Skin

Nursing Questions NCLEX

31. Through which arteriole does blood exit the glomerular capsule? A. Afferent B. Efferent C. Renal D. Interlobular 32. The group of modified cells lying adjacent to the afferent and efferent arterioles is called? A. The renal corpuscle B. The juxtaglomerular apparatus C. The peritubular network D. The vasa recta 33. The mucosa of the large intestine produces ………….secretions? A. Alkaline B. Acidic C. Neutral D. Both alkaline and acidic 34. In the body, the liver is described as? A. The heaviest and largest organ B. The heaviest and second-largest organ C. The largest and second heaviest organ D. The second largest and second heaviest organ 35. Intrinsic factor is produced by which cells within the stomach? A. Mucous cells B. Chief cells C. Enteroendocrine cells D. Parietal cells 36. The enzyme pepsin digests which dietary component? A. Protein B. Fat C. Carbohydrate D. Vitamins

37. The primary phase in the regulation of gastric secretion and motility is called? A. The swallowing phase B. The gastric phase C. The cephalic phase D. The intestinal phase 38. The exchange of gases between alveoli and their surrounding capillaries is called …….respiration. A. External B. Internal C. Intrinsic D. Both external and internal 39. The wandering phagocytes found in the alveoli are called? A. Alveolar macrophages B. Pulmonary cells C. Goblet cells D. Chalice cells 40. The pharynx is divided into how many sub-divisions? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

41. The two main factors for determining blood pressure are peripheral resistance and……….. A. Cardiac output B. Age C. Pulse pressure. D. Pulse deficit 42. Which of the following is an example of a peptide hormone? A. Aldosterone B. Serotonin C. Gastrin D. Prostaglandins 43. Which hormone acts on the intestines and causes increased calcium absorption? A. Calcitonin B. Calcitriol C. Thyroxine D. Pancreatic polypeptide 44. Melatonin is secreted by? A. The pancreas B. The pineal gland C. The keratinocytes of the skin D. The ovaries 45. Receptors are found all over the body and make us aware of the position and movement of the body in relation to its surrounding environment and body parts in relation to each other? A. Proprioceptors B. Retroceptors C. Sensory receptors D. Neural receptors 46. Each cerebral hemisphere is divided into how many lobes? • 2 • 3 • 4 • 5 47. Which of the following substances is not present in sweat? • Urea • Calcium • lactic acid • water urine and feces. 48. The dermis contains which of the following? • blood vessels • sweat glands • sensory nerve endings • sebaceous glands 49. For active management of the third stage of labor the nurse should administer? • Oxytocin 10 units within 1 minute • Oxytocin 10 units within 5 minutes • Oxytocin 5 units within 1 minute • Oxytocin 5 units within 5 minutes

50. In the human body, enzyme activity is most efficient at? • 0°C • 37°C • 42°C • 60°C 51. Cellular respiration is defined as: • an intracellular, energy-producing process • an extracellular, energy-producing process • an intracellular, energy-requiring process • an extracellular, energy-requiring process Cellular 52. What does AVPU stand for? • Alert, Voice, Pain, Unresponsive • Awake, Voice, Pain, Unresponsive • Alive, Voice, Pinch, Unresponsive • Asleep, Voice, Pain, Unresponsive 53. Which of the following is a mental health nursing model? • King • Neumann • Casey • Peplau 54. Sources of literature include _______? • books • internet • journals • all of these 55. What type of questioning might be used in a patient assessment? • open and closed • open and shut • exposed and closed • out and in 56. Non-verbal communication makes up __ of all communication? • 50% • 65% • 85% • 100% 57. The cognitive-developmental approach examines __.? • the reasons for the onset of depression • intelligent behavior in children • professional socialization • onset of dementia 58. Method of teaching in which an excursion to the patient’s area is arranged to provide a learning experience to the students is • Case presentation • Nursing rounds • Morning report • Process recording

59. The most abundant tissue in the human body is? • Epithelial • Connective • Muscle • Nervous 60. In following which substance is not transported across the cell membrane by simple diffusion? • Fatty acids • Oxygen • Glucose • Steroids

61. Who is the director of health services, Kerala? • Mrs. K K Shailaja • Dr. Sarita R L • Dr. Ravi R Menon • Dr. Zerena Begum 62. Which year is declared as the Year of Nurses and midwives by WHO? • 2021 • 2020 • 2019 • 2018

63. The heart is developed from which embryonic structure? • Paraxial mesoderm • Intermediate mesoderm • Splanchnopleuric intraembryonic mesoderm • Somatopleuric intraembryonic mesoderm 64. Medulla oblongata is also called? • Prosencephalon • Myelencephalon • Mesencephalon • Metencephalon 65. Posterior cerebral artery is a branch of which of these? • Vertebral artery • Basilar artery • Posterior cerebral artery • Posterior choroidal artery

66. In nursing services administration, who is responsible inventory control at lower managerial level? • Staff nurse • Assistant Nursing Superintendent • Nursing Superintendent • Head nurse

67. Which of the following is not a clinical method of teaching? • Case methods/case study • Nursing rounds and reports • Process recording • Seminar

68. Quality assurance is concerned with? • Adequacy of care • Practice ratings • Standard of practice • Organizational practice

69. Who has given 14 principles of management? • Daniel fraud • Henry Fayol • Mary Follet • Taylor

70. Which of the following is an autocratic method of teaching? • Lecture • Tutorial • Demonstration • Independent study

71. The department that is responsible for maintaining copies of all records related to patients? • Information System Department • Medical Record Department • Nursing Information system department • Department of Hospital Information System

72. Standard deviation is a measure of? • Chance • Central tendency • Deviation from a mean value • None

73. Right to Information Act came into existence in which year? • 1985 • 2001 • 1999 • 2005

74. Which of the following is not required in the consent form? • Address of researcher • Name of researcher • Phone no. of the researcher • Income of the researcher

75. The variable that is manipulated in an experiment • Independent variable • Criteria variable • Dependent variable • Controller variable

76. Which of the following would not be in a research proposal? • Budget • Methods • Time frame • Results

77. Teaching method in which students learn to do critical thinking through discussion and interaction and develop higher analytical cognitive skills is? • Seminar • Panel discussion. • Symposium • Lecture

78. Deformity of……………bone resulting in Sprengel’s shoulder? • Scapula • Radius • Ulna • Tibia

79. For assessing the gestational age of a preterm infant the nurse should use…………? • Palmar creases • Reflex stability • Breast bud size • Head to toe length

80. Invertogram is used for the diagnosis of? • Anorectal malformations • Tracheoesophageal fistula • Cleft lip and palate • Hirschsprung disease

81. ADHD is usually treated with? • Lorazepam • Methylphenidate • Haloperidol • Methocarbamol

82. The type of delusion commonly seen in depression is/are? • Delusion of poverty • Delusion of Nihilism • Delusion of persecution • All the above

83. The priority nursing intervention for a client who is admitted with paranoid schizophrenia is? • Establish a structured daily routine • Plan a program of self-fulfillment. • Provide patient and others with a safe environment • Do a mini-mental status examination

84. The part of the mind that distinguishes right from wrong and acts as a censor of behavior is known as? • Ego • Libido • Id • Superego

85. An alcoholic client experiencing burning and tingling sensations of the feet. It is suggestive of • Peripheral neuropathy • Wernicke’s encephalopathy • Korkoff’s psychosis • Seizure

86. The denominator used to calculate the literacy rate of the Indian population is: • Population aged 18 years or more • Population aged 7 years or more • School going population • Total mid-year population

87. Limit for registration of birth is? • 7 days • 21 days • 14 days • All of the above

88. Which one of the following is NOT a socio-economic indicator? • Literacy rate • Housing • Family size • Life expectancy at birth

89. Smallpox vaccine was invented by? • Louis Pasteur • Paul Eugene • Edward Jenner • John Snow

90. Scotch tape swab is used to identify? • Tapeworm • Anquilostoma • Pinworm • Cryptosporidium

91. Amoebiasis is transmitted through? • Feco-oral • Vector-borne • Parenteral • Airborne

92. Maximum amount of vitamin D is found in which among the following? • Liver • Cheese • Egg yolk • Cod liver oil

93. Phosphatase test is used for? • To test the presence of nitric acid • To determine the type of methemoglobinemia, a blood disorder. • Test for the efficacy of pasteurization of milk • None of the above

94. 3D’s (diarrhea, dementia, dermatitis) are the characteristic of which deficiency disorder? • Thiamine • Biotin • Niacin • Riboflavin

95. Which of the following antitubercular drugs causes red-orange discoloration of urine? • Isoniazid • Streptomycin • Ethambutol • Rifampicin

96. Which of the following type of insulin is prescribed for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis? • Long-acting insulin • Lente insulin • Human Regular insulin • Human NPH insulin

97. Imipramine is an antidepressant of which group? • Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) • Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) • Monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) • Non-selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor

98. The priority nursing diagnosis for the client with a tracheostomy is? • Pain related to tracheostomy • Impaired verbal communication related to tracheostomy procedure • Ineffective airway clearance related to increased tracheobronchial secretions • Risk for impaired skin integrity related to tracheostomy incision

99. Absence of bowel sounds and abdominal distention after abdominal surgery indicates? • Hemorrhage • Intussusception • Paralytic ileus • Flatulence

100. Unwanted but unavoidable pharmacodynamics effects of a drug at the therapeutic dose is known as? • Hypersensitivity • Side effects • Toxic effects • Idiosyncrasy

101. Parkinson’s disease is caused by the deficiency of which of the following neurotransmitters? • Acetylcholine • Dopamine • GABA • Serotonin

Obstetrics and Gynecology Nursing Questions and Answers

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Important Nursing Questions and Answers

1. A patient with a diagnosis of end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is admitted to ICU. All of the following is the appropriate nursing diagnoses for this patient, except:

a. Fluid volume excess b. Decreased RBC c. Electrolyte imbalance d. Impaired immune function

2. Which of the following blood pressure reading of a child aged between 3 and 5 years is considered abnormal? a. 96/42 mm Hg b. 105/60 mm Hg c. 112/65 mm Hg d. 115/66 mm Hg

3. A 70-year-old female patient is scheduled for surgery in two hours. Which of the following laboratory findings warrant the most immediate notification of the physician?

a. Prothrombin time 22 seconds b. Hemoglobin 11 g/dL c. Creatinine 1.0 mg/dL d. Potassium 4.6 mEq/dL

4. The nurse is preparing to administer a vaginal cream to her assigned patient with the help of an applicator. Which among the following instructions the nurse would tell the patient for proper use of vaginal cream at home? a. Make sure to empty the bladder before receiving this drug b. Remain lying down for 10 minutes after taking this drug c. Insert applicator approximately 5 to 7.5 cm d. All of the above

5. A nurse inspects a two-day-old intravenous site and identifies erythema, warmth, and mild edem a. The client reports tenderness when the area is palpate d. What should the nurse do first? a. Irrigate the IV tubing b. Discontinue the infusion c. Slow the rate of the infusion d. Obtain a prescription for an analgesic

Basic Nursing Questions and Answers

Analytical Reasoning Notes for Law Entrance Exams

Preparing for law entrance exams like CLAT, AILET, SLAT  and LSAT requires a strong grasp of analytical reasoning. This section tests how well you can think logically, spot patterns and make accurate conclusions. 

Our notes on analytical reasoning are prepared by industry experts, ensuring you get the best guidance and insights. These experts have a deep understanding of what it takes to excel in law entrance exams like CLAT, AILET, SLAT  and LSAT. With their expertise, these notes are crafted to help you master the key concepts and problem-solving techniques needed to succeed.

1. Coding-Decoding | Explained

Coding-Decoding questions are a unique challenge that requires your ability to decipher patterns and transform information using specific codes or rules. These questions appear in various competitive exams and involve unravelling coded messages or sequences.

In this guide, we’ll delve into effective strategies for solving Coding-Decoding questions and provide five examples to illustrate each approach.

Understanding Coding-Decoding

In Coding-Decoding questions, you’ll encounter a given code or rule that is used to transform a set of words, numbers or symbols. Your task is to decipher the pattern and apply the same rule to decode the coded information.

Strategies for Solving Coding-Decoding Questions

• Analyse the Code: Begin by carefully examining the given code or rule. Understand how it transforms the original information into the coded form.
• Identify Patterns: Look for patterns, relationships or mathematical operations that the code employs. Common patterns include letter replacements, numerical shifts or positional changes.
• Practice Regular Symbols: Often, codes use regular symbols or letters. Practice associating symbols with their corresponding values or positions in the alphabet.
• Work Step by Step: Decode the information step by step. Apply the code to each element of the given information.
• Use Options: If provided with multiple-choice options, try applying the code to each option to see which one matches the given information.

Examples of Coding-Decoding

Code: A = Z, B = Y, C = X, …

Message: HELLO

Decoded Message: SVOOL

Code: Add 3 to each letter’s position.

Message: APPLE

Decoded Message: DSVOH

Code: Replace vowels with numbers (A=1, E=2, I=3, O=4, U=5).

Message: SONG

Decoded Message: S15NG

Code: Reverse the order of letters.

Message: WORLD

Decoded Message: DLROW

Code: Replace each letter with the next letter in the alphabet (Z wraps to A).

Message: CAT

Decoded Message: DBU

2. Solving Analogy Questions

Analogy questions challenge your ability to identify relationships between pairs of words and apply those relationships to new pairs of words. These questions appear in various competitive exams and assess your logical thinking and pattern recognition skills. In this guide, we’ll explore effective strategies for solving analogy questions and provide five examples to illustrate each approach.

Understanding Analogy

An analogy is a comparison between two pairs of words that highlights a specific relationship. Your task is to discern the relationship between the first pair and then apply the same relationship to the second pair.

Strategies for Solving Analogy Questions

• Analyse the Relationship: Begin by understanding the relationship between the first pair of words. Determine how the words are related or connected.
• Identify the Commonality: Look for a common element, concept  or attribute that links the words in the first pair. This commonality is the basis for the analogy.
• Apply the Relationship: Once you’ve identified the relationship, apply it to the second pair of words to find the corresponding word.
• Consider Alternate Meanings: Sometimes, words have multiple meanings. Ensure that the chosen relationship applies consistently in the context of the analogy.
• Use Options: If provided with multiple-choice options, test each option by applying the analogy relationship to see which one fits.

Examples of Analogy

Pair 1: Cat – Meow

Pair 2: Dog – ?

Relationship: Animal sound

Analogy Solution: Dog – Bark

Pair 1: Teacher – Student

Pair 2: Doctor – ?

Relationship: Profession and recipient

Analogy Solution: Doctor – Patient

Pair 1: Circle – Round

Pair 2: Square – ?

Relationship: Shape and property

Analogy Solution: Square – Angular

Pair 1: Ocean – Water

Pair 2: Desert – ?

Relationship: Natural environment and element

Analogy Solution: Desert – Sand

Pair 1: Marathon – Race

Pair 2: Symphony – ?

Relationship: Type of performance

Analogy Solution: Symphony – Concert

3. Syllogism

Syllogism questions test your ability to draw logical conclusions from given statements. These questions appear in various law entrance exams and evaluate your deductive reasoning skills.

Understanding Syllogism

A syllogism is a form of reasoning where conclusions are drawn from two or more given statements. The conclusions are based on the relationships between the statements and follow logical rules.

Strategies for Solving Syllogism Questions

• Read Carefully : Thoroughly understand the given statements. Pay attention to the subjects, predicates and relationships mentioned.
• Identify Components: Identify the major term (predicate) and the minor term (subject) in each statement.
• Analyse Relationships: Examine the relationships between the major and minor terms in the statements. Look for commonalities or differences.
• Use Venn Diagrams: Create Venn diagrams to visualise the relationships between the terms. This helps you see the intersections and exclusions.

Apply Rules of Syllogism

All A are B, All B are C → All A are C

All A are B, No B is C → No A is C

Some A are B, All B are C → Some A are C

Some A are B, No B is C → No A is C

Combine Statements: Combine the statements to draw valid conclusions based on the rules of syllogism.

Use Options: If provided with multiple-choice options, apply the conclusions to see which one is supported by the statements.

Statement 1: All cats are mammals.

Statement 2: All mammals are animals.

Conclusion: All cats are animals.

Statement 1: Some apples are red.

Statement 2: All red things are delicious.

Conclusion: Some apples are delicious.

Statement 1: No pens are pencils.

Statement 2: All pencils are stationery items.

Conclusion: No pens are stationery items.

Statement 1: All dogs are loyal.

Statement 2: Some loyal creatures are pets.

Conclusion: Some pets are dogs.

Statement 1: Some doctors are researchers.

Statement 2: No researchers are athletes.

Conclusion: Some doctors are not athletes.

4. Blood Relationship

Blood relationship questions test your understanding of family connections and relationships between individuals based on their blood ties. These questions often appear in law entrance exams and assess your logical reasoning skills. 

Understanding Blood Relationship

Blood relationship questions involve deducing relationships between family members, such as parents, siblings, grandparents and cousins. You need to use the given information to establish the connections accurately.

Strategies for Solving Blood Relationship Questions

Read Carefully: Thoroughly understand the given information about family members and their relationships.

Draw a Family Tree: Create a family tree or diagram to visualise the relationships. This helps you see the connections more clearly.

Identify Key Relationships: Identify the key individuals mentioned in the question and determine their roles (parent, child, sibling, etc.).

Apply Logical Rules: Use the rules of blood relationships

Parents → Children

Children → Parents

Siblings → Siblings

Grandparents → Grandchildren

Spouses → Marital relationships

Use Gender Information: Utilise gender information to determine parental and spousal relationships.

Eliminate Options: If provided with multiple-choice options, eliminate options that do not fit the given relationships.

John is the son of Mary. Mary has a daughter named Lisa. Who is Lisa to John?

Answer: Lisa is John’s sister.

Sam is the brother of Jane. Jane is the daughter of Alex. How is Alex related to Sam?

Answer: Alex is Sam’s father.

Maria and David are siblings. Emma is Maria’s daughter. How is Emma related to David?

Answer: Emma is David’s niece.

Alex is the father of Chris. Chris is the brother of Sarah. How is Sarah related to Alex?

Answer: Sarah is Alex’s daughter.

Laura is the wife of Jack. Tina is the daughter of Jack. How is Laura related to Tina?

Answer: Laura is Tina’s mother.

5. Coded Relationship

Coded relationship questions challenge your ability to decipher coded information representing various relationships between individuals or objects. These questions often appear in law entrance exams and assess your logical and analytical skills. 

Understanding Coded Relationship

Coded relationship questions involve decoding a given set of symbols, letters or numbers that represent different relationships or connections. Your task is to decipher the code and determine the relationships it represents.

Strategies for Solving Coded Relationship Questions

• Analyse the Code : Begin by understanding the key to the given code. The code might involve letters, numbers, symbols or a combination of these.
• Decipher the Key: Determine how the code represents different relationships. Look for patterns or rules that link the code to the relationships.
• Create a Reference Table: Create a reference table that maps the code to the actual relationships. This table will serve as your guide for decoding.
• Apply the Code: Use the reference table to decode the coded information and establish the relationships between individuals or objects.
• Check Consistency: Ensure that the code is applied consistently throughout the question. If a certain code represents a specific relationship, it should remain consistent.
• Use Options: If provided with multiple-choice options, test each option by applying the code to see which one fits.

Code: Z = Father, Y = Mother, X = Sister

Coded Information: ZYX

Decoded Information: Father, Mother, Sister

Code: 1 = Friend, 2 = Colleague, 3 = Neighbor

Coded Information: 132

Decoded Information: Friend, Neighbor, Colleague

Code: A = Husband, B = Wife, C = Son

Coded Information: BAC

Decoded Information: Wife, Husband, Son

Code: @ = Parent, $ = Sibling, % = Cousin

Coded Information: $@%

Decoded Information: Sibling, Parent, Cousin

Code: 7 = Teacher, 8 = Student, 9 = Principal

Coded Information: 789

Decoded Information: Teacher, Student, Principal

6. Alphabet Relationship

Alphabet relationship questions challenge your ability to identify patterns and relationships between letters of the alphabet. These questions are commonly found in law entrance exams and assess your logical thinking and pattern recognition skills. 

Understanding Alphabet Relationship

Alphabet relationship questions involve understanding the relationships between letters based on various patterns, such as letter sequences, positions or transformations.

Strategies for Solving Alphabet Relationship Questions

• Analyse the Pattern: Begin by carefully examining the given alphabet sequence. Look for any patterns, sequences or transformations.
• Identify the Rule : Determine the rule or logic that governs the relationship between the letters. Is there a consistent order, arrangement or transformation?
• Apply the Rule: Once you’ve identified the rule, apply it to the given sequence of letters. Use the rule to predict the next letter or fill in missing letters.
• Check for Consistency: Ensure that the rule is consistently applied throughout the sequence. The pattern should hold true for all the letters.
• Use Options: If provided with multiple-choice options, apply the rule to each option to see which one matches the given pattern.

Pattern: A, C, E, G, …

Next Letter: ?

Rule: Alternate letters in the alphabet

Next Letter: I

Pattern: B, D, F, H, …

Rule: Alternate letters in the alphabet, starting from B

Next Letter: J

Pattern: C, E, G, I, …

Rule: Alternate letters in the alphabet, starting from C

Next Letter: K

Pattern: E, F, G, H, …

Rule: Increment each letter by one position

Pattern: J, M, P, S, …

Rule: Increase each letter by three positions

Next Letter: V

7. Seating Arrangement

Seating arrangement questions challenge your ability to organise and analyse the positioning of individuals or objects in a linear or circular arrangement. These questions are commonly found in law entrance exams and assess your spatial reasoning and logical skills. 

Understanding Seating Arrangement

Seating arrangement questions involve arranging a group of individuals or objects in a specific order or pattern, such as a row, a circle or a table. Your task is to determine the positions of the elements based on the given information and constraints.

Strategies for Solving Seating Arrangement Questions

• Read the Information: Carefully read the information provided about the seating arrangement. Understand the given positions, relationships and any constraints.
• Visualise the Arrangement: Create a mental or visual representation of the seating arrangement. This helps you keep track of the positions and visualise the relationships.
• Identify Fixed Positions: Look for any fixed positions or individuals mentioned in the information. These can serve as anchor points for arranging others.
• Apply Clues and Constraints: Use the clues, hints or constraints provided to deduce the positions of other elements. Apply these constraints systematically.
• Draw a Diagram: If needed, draw a diagram or grid to represent the seating arrangement. Mark the known positions and use symbols to represent the individuals.
• Trial and Error: If one approach isn’t working, try different possibilities until you find a consistent arrangement that satisfies all constraints.
• Eliminate Options: If provided with multiple-choice options, test each option by applying the given information to see which one fits.

Examples 

Example 1: Linear Arrangement:

Five friends – Alice, Bob, Carol, Dave and Eve – are sitting in a row facing north. Dave is to the immediate left of Bob. Carol is between Alice and Dave. Who is sitting in the middle?

Solution: Carol is sitting in the middle.

Example 2: Circular Arrangement:

Six students – Alex, Ben, Chris, Dana, Erin and Frank – are sitting in a circle. Alex is between Ben and Chris. Dana is to the immediate right of Alex. Who is sitting to the immediate left of Chris?

Solution: Frank is sitting to the immediate left of Chris.

Example 3: Rectangular Table Arrangement:

Eight colleagues – Alice, Bob, Carol, Dave, Eve, Frank, Gina and Harry – are sitting around a rectangular table. Alice is opposite Carol. Dave is adjacent to both Carol and Gina. Who is sitting opposite Dave?

Solution: Gina is sitting opposite Dave.

Example 4: Mixed Arrangement:

Seven people – Alex, Bob, Carol, Dave, Eve, Frank and Gina – are sitting on a bench. Alex is at one end. Dave is to the immediate left of Carol. Frank is at the other end. Who is sitting next to Gina?

Solution: Eve is sitting next to Gina.

Example 5: Complex Arrangement:

Nine friends – Alice, Bob, Carol, Dave, Eve, Frank, Gina, Harry and Ivy – are sitting in a row facing north. Frank is to the immediate right of Harry. Dave is not at the extreme ends. Ivy is not adjacent to either Frank or Dave. Who is sitting second from the right end?

Solution: Ivy is sitting second from the right end.

8. Solving Ranking 

Ranking questions assess your ability to determine the relative positions or orders of individuals or objects based on given information. These questions often appear in law entrance exams and evaluate your logical and analytical skills. 

Understanding Ranking

Ranking questions involve arranging a group of individuals or objects in a specific order or sequence based on certain criteria. Your task is to determine the positions or ranks of the elements according to the information provided.

Strategies for Solving Ranking Questions

• Read the Information : Carefully read the information provided about the ranking. Understand the given positions, relationships and any constraints.
• Identify Fixed Positions: Look for any fixed positions or individuals mentioned in the information. These can serve as anchor points for determining the ranks of other elements.
• Deduce Ranks: Use the clues, hints or constraints provided to deduce the ranks of other elements. Apply these constraints systematically.
• Use Counting Techniques: If the ranks are consecutive, use counting techniques to determine the positions of individuals or objects.
• Draw a Diagram: If needed, draw a diagram or chart to represent the ranking sequence. Mark the known positions and use numbers or symbols to represent the ranks.
• Trial and Error: If one approach isn’t working, try different possibilities until you find a consistent ranking that satisfies all constraints.

Example 1: Simple Ranking:

Five students – Alex, Bob, Carol, Dave and Eve – are ranked based on their test scores. Carol is ranked second. Dave is ranked higher than Bob. Who is ranked first?

Solution: Alex is ranked first.

Example 2: Consecutive Ranking:

Ten participants – Alice, Ben, Chris, Dana, Eve, Frank, Gina, Harry, Ivy and Jack – are ranked consecutively. Alice is ranked fourth. Dana is ranked immediately after Ben. Who is ranked sixth?

Solution: Frank is ranked sixth.

Example 3: Mixed Ranking:

Seven friends – Alex, Bob, Carol, Dave, Eve, Frank and Gina – are ranked in a mixed order. Bob is ranked fourth from the top. Dave is ranked immediately after Alex. Who is ranked third from the bottom?

Solution: Gina is ranked third from the bottom.

Example 4: Relative Ranking:

Eight colleagues – Alice, Bob, Carol, Dave, Eve, Frank, Gina and Harry – are ranked based on their performance. Eve is ranked higher than Carol but lower than Frank. Who is ranked third?

Solution: Harry is ranked third.

Example 5: Complex Ranking:

Twelve students – Alex, Bob, Carol, Dave, Eve, Frank, Gina, Harry, Ivy, Jack, Kate and Leo – are ranked based on their ages. Eve is ranked seventh. Dave is ranked higher than both Bob and Ivy. Who is ranked ninth?

Solution: Ivy is ranked ninth.

9. Cause and Effect Relationships

Cause and effect questions challenge your ability to identify the causal relationship between events or actions. These questions appear in competitive exams and assess your logical thinking and analytical skills.

Understanding Cause and Effect

Cause and effect questions involve understanding the relationship between events, where one event (the cause) leads to another event (the effect). Your task is to determine the cause or effect based on the given information.

Strategies for Solving Cause and Effect Questions

• Read Carefully: Thoroughly read the given information about the events or actions. Understand the context and sequence of events.
• Identify the Causative Event: Determine the event or action that precedes or leads to another event. This is the cause.
• Identify the Resulting Event: Identify the event or action that follows or is a result of another event. This is the effect.
• Apply Logic: Use logical reasoning to connect the cause and effect. Consider the cause as the reason for the effect occurring.
• Use Common Sense: Sometimes, the cause and effect relationship may be based on common sense or general knowledge.
• Use Options: If provided with multiple-choice options, test each option by applying the cause and effect relationship to see which one fits.

Cause: It rained heavily.

Effect: The streets were flooded.

Explanation: The heavy rain caused the streets to flood.

Cause: The battery was dead.

Effect: The car wouldn’t start.

Explanation: The dead battery led to the car not starting.

Cause: She studied diligently.

Effect: She aced the exam.

Explanation: Her diligent studying caused her to excel on the exam.

Cause: He missed the bus.

Effect: He was late for work.

Explanation: Missing the bus resulted in him being late for work.

Cause: They planted seeds and watered them daily.

Effect: The plants grew tall and healthy.

Explanation: The planting of seeds and regular watering caused the plants to grow well.

10. Number Series

Number series questions challenge your ability to identify patterns and relationships within a sequence of numbers. These questions appear in law entrance exams and assess your logical and mathematical skills.

Understanding Number Series

Number series questions involve finding the pattern or rule that governs the sequence of numbers. Your task is to determine the next number in the series based on the given pattern.

Strategies for Solving Number Series Questions

• Analyze the Pattern: Begin by carefully examining the given number series. Look for any patterns, progressions  or mathematical relationships.
• Identify Arithmetic or Geometric Progressions: Determine if the sequence follows an arithmetic progression (constant difference between consecutive terms) or a geometric progression (constant ratio between consecutive terms).
• Look for Mathematical Operations: Identify mathematical operations such as addition, subtraction, multiplication  or division that might be applied to generate the sequence.
• Use Differences or Ratios: Calculate the differences between consecutive terms (if arithmetic) or the ratios between consecutive terms (if geometric). Use these to find the next term.
• Apply Multiple Operations : Sometimes, sequences involve multiple mathematical operations. Apply each operation step by step to deduce the pattern.
• Use Options: If provided with multiple-choice options, test each option by applying the pattern to see which one fits.

Example 1: Arithmetic Progression:

Series: 2, 5, 8, 11, …

Next Number: ?

Pattern: Add 3 to each term

Next Number: 14

Example 2: Geometric Progression:

Series: 2, 6, 18, 54, …

Pattern: Multiply each term by 3

Next Number: 162

Example 3: Mixed Operations:

Series: 3, 8, 18, 38, …

Pattern: Double each term and then add 2

Next Number: 78

Example 4: Pattern with Squares:

Series: 1, 4, 9, 16, …

Pattern: Square of consecutive natural numbers

Next Number: 25

Example 5: Prime Numbers:

Series: 2, 3, 5, 7, …

Pattern: Consecutive prime numbers

Next Number: 11

11. Distance and Direction

Distance and direction questions challenge your ability to determine distances, directions  and positions based on given information. These questions are commonly found in law entrance exams and assess your logical and spatial reasoning skills. 

Understanding Distance and Direction

Distance and direction questions involve interpreting information related to the position, distance  or direction of individuals or objects in a given scenario. Your task is to deduce the correct positions or directions based on the provided information.

Strategies for Solving Distance and Direction Questions

• Read Carefully: Thoroughly read the information provided about the positions, distances  and directions. Understand the context of the given scenario.
• Draw a Diagram: If applicable, draw a simple diagram or map to represent the scenario. Mark the known positions, distances  and directions.
• Identify Fixed Points: Look for any fixed points, landmarks  or directions mentioned in the information. These can serve as anchor points for determining other positions.
• Apply Clues: Use the clues, hints  or constraints provided to deduce the positions or directions of other elements. Apply these constraints systematically.
• Use Options: If provided with multiple-choice options, test each option by applying the given information to see which one fits.
• Consider Relative Positions : Consider the relative positions of individuals or objects. Use terms like “left,” “right,” “opposite,” and “adjacent” to determine their relationships.

Example 1: Direction of a Place:

Alex is facing north. He turns 180 degrees clockwise. In which direction is he now facing?

Solution: Alex is now facing south.

Example 2: Distance and Position:

A and B are facing each other. A is 15 meters to the left of C. B is 10 meters to the right of C. What is the distance between A and B?

Solution: The distance between A and B is 25 meters.

Example 3: Moving in a Direction:

John walks 5 km east, then turns and walks 10 km south. Finally, he turns again and walks 3 km west. How far is he from his starting point?

Solution: John is 2 km away from his starting point.

Example 4: Sequence of Directions:

Peter walks 2 km north, then 3 km east  and finally 5 km south. In which direction is he from his starting point?

Solution: Peter is 4 km west of his starting point.

Example 5: Direction of a Landmark:

A tower is to the north of a building. A tree is to the east of the tower. In which direction is the tree from the building?

Solution: The tree is to the northeast of the building.

12. Course of Action Questions

Course of action questions challenges your ability to analyse a given situation and determine the best course of action or solution. These questions appear in law entrance exams and assess your logical thinking and decision-making skills. 

Understanding Course of Action

Course of action questions involve evaluating a scenario and selecting the most appropriate action or steps to address the situation effectively. Your task is to identify the logical and practical course of action based on the given information.

Strategies for Solving Course of Action Questions

• Read Carefully: Thoroughly read and understand the given situation or scenario. Pay attention to the details and context.
• Identify the Problem: Determine the key issue or problem presented in the scenario. This will help you focus on finding relevant solutions.
• Evaluate Options: Consider various possible actions that could address the problem. Think about the potential outcomes and consequences of each option.
• Prioritise Actions: Determine the actions that are most feasible, practical and likely to yield positive results.
• Use Logic and Common Sense: Apply logical reasoning and common sense to assess the appropriateness of each course of action.
• Consider Constraints: Take into account any constraints or limitations mentioned in the scenario that could impact the feasibility of certain actions.
• Eliminate Irrelevant Options: If provided with multiple-choice options, eliminate options that are not relevant or do not effectively address the problem.

Example 1: Health and Safety:

• Situation: An employee consistently fails to follow safety protocols in the workplace.
• Options: Issue a warning, provide additional training, suspend the employee  or terminate the employee’s contract.
• Course of Action: Provide additional training to ensure the employee understands and follows safety protocols.

Example 2: Environmental Conservation:

• Situation: Air pollution levels in a city are alarmingly high.
• Options: Ban private vehicles, promote public transportation, impose fines on polluting industries  and encourage the use of electric vehicles.
• Course of Action: Promote public transportation to reduce vehicular emissions and improve air quality.

Example 3: Financial Management:

• Situation: An individual is struggling with credit card debt.
• Options: Get a loan to pay off the debt, negotiate with creditors, cut down unnecessary expenses  or ignore the debt.
• Course of Action: Negotiate with creditors to establish a manageable repayment plan.

Example 4: Crisis Management:

• Situation: A natural disaster has struck a region, causing widespread damage.
• Options: Send emergency relief teams, provide financial aid, conduct damage assessment  and wait for international assistance.
• The course of Action: Send emergency relief teams to provide immediate assistance and assess the situation.

Example 5: Team Conflict Resolution:

• Situation: There is a conflict among team members affecting productivity.
• Options: Replace team members, hold team-building workshops, assign a mediator  and ignore the conflict.
• Course of Action: Hold team-building workshops to improve communication and resolve conflict.

13. Decoding Situation-Based Questions

Situation-based questions challenge your ability to analyse and respond to specific scenarios, often requiring you to apply your knowledge and logical reasoning. These questions are commonly found in law entrance exams and assess your critical thinking and problem-solving skills.

Understanding Situation-Based Questions

Situation-based questions present you with a hypothetical scenario or real-life situation, followed by a question or prompt. Your task is to analyse the situation, consider the given information and provide a logical and well-reasoned response.

Strategies for Solving Situation-Based Questions

• Read Thoroughly: Carefully read the entire scenario and question to fully understand the context and requirements.
• Identify Key Details: Identify the key facts, characters and elements presented in the situation. Pay attention to any relevant information.
• Clarify Objectives: Determine the main goal or objective of the question. What is the question asking you to analyse, explain or recommend?
• Think Critically: Use critical thinking to analyse the situation from different angles. Consider possible causes, effects, implications and solutions.
• Organise Your Response: Structure your response logically. Consider using headings or paragraphs to address different aspects of the situation.
• Provide Evidence: Support your response with relevant evidence or reasoning. Explain how you arrived at your conclusions or recommendations.
• Consider Alternatives: If appropriate, discuss alternative courses of action or viewpoints before presenting your final response.

Example 1: Ethical Dilemma:

Situation: You witness a colleague stealing office supplies. What would you do in this situation?

Response: I would approach the colleague privately, express my concern and encourage them to rectify the situation. If the behavior continues, I would consider reporting it to a supervisor or appropriate authority.

Example 2: Decision Making:

Situation: You are a team leader and need to choose between two equally qualified candidates for a job opening. What factors would you consider in making your decision?

Response: I would consider factors such as skills, experience, cultural fit, teamwork ability and potential for growth. I would also seek input from team members and stakeholders to ensure a well-informed decision.

Example 3: Problem Solving:

Situation: Your computer crashes right before an important presentation. How would you handle this situation?

Response: I would remain calm and quickly assess whether the issue can be resolved within a reasonable timeframe. If not, I would prepare a backup plan, such as using a colleague’s computer or presenting from printed materials.

Example 4: Time Management:

Situation: You have multiple assignments due on the same day. How would you prioritise and manage your time effectively?

Response: I would start by assessing the scope and deadlines of each assignment. Then, I would create a detailed schedule, allocating sufficient time for research, drafting and revisions. I would also consider seeking assistance or delegating tasks if possible.

Example 5: Conflict Resolution:

Situation: Two team members are having a heated argument during a meeting. How would you handle the situation and restore harmony?

Response: I would intervene calmly, acknowledge their perspectives and encourage open communication. I would facilitate a productive discussion, allowing each person to express their views. I would then work with them to find common ground and a mutually acceptable solution.

14. Classification Questions: Strategies and Examples

Classification questions challenge your ability to categorise or group given elements based on specific criteria. These questions are commonly found in law entrance exams and assess your logical thinking and pattern recognition skills. 

Understanding Classification Questions

Classification questions involve sorting a set of items into different categories or groups based on shared characteristics or attributes. Your task is to identify the underlying pattern or criteria for classification.

Strategies for Solving Classification Questions

• Analyse the Elements: Carefully examine the given elements or items that need to be classified. Look for patterns, similarities or differences.
• Identify Common Characteristics: Determine the common features or attributes shared by certain elements. These characteristics will help you establish categories.
• Look for Relationships: Identify relationships between elements, such as numerical sequences, alphabetical order, shapes, colours, sizes or any other relevant attributes.
• Group Elements: Group elements that exhibit the same or similar characteristics into categories based on the identified criteria.
• Test with New Elements: Apply the established criteria to new elements to ensure that they fit within the correct category.
• Eliminate Incorrect Options: I f provided with multiple-choice options, eliminate options that do not conform to the established pattern.

Example 1: Classification by Shape:

Classify the following shapes into two categories – triangles and circles.

Elements: Triangle, Circle, Circle, Triangle, Circle

Classification: Triangles: Triangle, Triangle | Circles: Circle, Circle, Circle

Example 2: Classification by Color:

Classify the following objects into two categories – red and blue.

Elements: Apple, Pen, Book, Car, Blueberry

Classification: Red: Apple | Blue: Pen, Book, Car, Blueberry

Example 3: Classification by Size:

Classify the following animals into two categories – large and small.

Elements: Elephant, Mouse, Lion, Ant, Giraffe

Classification: Large: Elephant, Lion, Giraffe | Small: Mouse, Ant

Example 4: Classification by Number of Sides:

Classify the following shapes into two categories – quadrilaterals and polygons with more than four sides.

Elements: Square, Triangle, Pentagon, Hexagon, Rectangle

Classification: Quadrilaterals: Square, Rectangle | Polygons with >4 sides: Triangle, Pentagon, Hexagon

Example 5: Classification by Alphabetic Order:

Classify the following words into two categories – starting with vowels and starting with consonants.

Elements: Apple, Banana, Cat, Egg, Dog

Classification: Vowels: Apple, Egg | Consonants: Banana, Cat, Dog

15. Time Sequence Questions: Strategies and Examples

Time sequence questions challenge your ability to arrange events or actions in the correct chronological order. These questions are commonly found in law entrance exams and assess your logical thinking and sequencing skills. 

Understanding Time Sequence Questions

Time sequence questions involve arranging a set of events, actions or steps in the order in which they occurred. Your task is to determine the correct chronological sequence based on the given information.

Strategies for Solving Time Sequence Questions

• Read Thoroughly: Carefully read the information provided about the events or actions. Understand the context and order of occurrences.
• Identify Time Clues: Look for any time-related clues or indicators provided in the information, such as dates, days, months or specific time intervals.
• Use Signal Words: Pay attention to signal words that indicate the sequence of events, such as “first,” “next,” “then,” “after,” “finally,” and “last.”
• Create a Timeline: Visualise a timeline or sequence of events in your mind. Use arrows or symbols to represent the order of occurrences.
• Connect Events: Establish connections between events to determine the cause-and-effect relationships or dependencies.
• Apply Logic: Use logical reasoning to arrange events based on their natural progression or the information provided.
• Use Options: If provided with multiple-choice options, test each option by applying the chronological order to see which one fits.

Example 1: Simple Time Sequence:

Arrange the following steps in the correct chronological order:

• Boil water.
• Cook for 10 minutes.
• Drain pasta.

Correct Sequence: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

Example 2: Historical Events:

Arrange the following historical events in the correct chronological order:

• A. American Revolution
• B. Renaissance
• C. Industrial Revolution
• D. Fall of the Roman Empire

Correct Sequence: D, B, A, C

Example 3: Daily Routine:

Arrange the following actions in the correct chronological order:

• Brush teeth
• Eat breakfast
• Take a shower
• Get dressed

Correct Sequence: 1, 2, 4, 3, 5

Example 4: Project Milestones:

Arrange the following project milestones in the correct chronological order:

• A. Research and Planning
• B. Implementation
• C. Data Analysis
• D. Presentation

Correct Sequence: A, B, C, D

Example 5: Historical Figures:

Arrange the birth years of the following historical figures in the correct chronological order:

• Albert Einstein
• Leonardo da Vinci
• Mahatma Gandhi
• Marie Curie

Correct Sequence: 2, 3, 4, 1

16. Ascending and Descending Order

Ascending and descending order questions challenge your ability to arrange a set of numbers or elements in either increasing (ascending) or decreasing (descending) order. These questions are commonly found in competitive exams and assess your logical thinking and sorting skills. 

Understanding Ascending and Descending Order

Ascending order involves arranging numbers or elements from the smallest to the largest while descending order involves arranging them from the largest to the smallest.

Strategies for Solving Ascending and Descending Order Questions

• Read Carefully: Carefully read the given numbers or elements that need to be arranged. Understand whether you need to arrange them in ascending or descending order.
• Start with Extremes: Identify the smallest (for ascending) or largest (for descending) number or element. This serves as a starting point.
• Compare and Arrange: Compare the remaining numbers or elements one by one with the starting point and arrange them accordingly.
• Use Symbols or Arrows: Use symbols (>, <) or arrows (↑ for ascending, ↓ for descending) to indicate the order of elements as you sort them.
• Create a List or Table: If the list is long, consider creating a list or table to help you visually organise and sort the elements.
• Use Options: If provided with multiple-choice options, test each option by arranging the numbers to see which one fits.

Example 1: Ascending Order:

Arrange the following numbers in ascending order:

25, 12, 36, 9, 42

Ascending Order: 9, 12, 25, 36, 42

Example 2: Descending Order:

Arrange the following numbers in descending order:

7, 15, 3, 9, 22

Descending Order: 22, 15, 9, 7, 3

Example 3: Mixed Order:

16, 8, 22, 5, 13

Ascending Order: 5, 8, 13, 16, 22

Example 4: Words in Alphabetical Order:

Arrange the following words in alphabetical order:

Apple orange, Banana, Grapes, Mango

Alphabetical Order: Apple, Banana, Grapes, Mango orange

Example 5: Mixed Elements in Descending Order:

Arrange the following elements (numbers and letters) in descending order:

X, 18, Q, 42, D, 9

Descending Order: 42, 18, 9, X, Q, D

17. Cracking Odd Man Out Questions

Odd-man-out questions challenge your ability to identify an element that does not fit a certain pattern or group. These questions are commonly found in law entrance exams and assess your pattern recognition and analytical skills. 

Understanding Odd Man-Out Questions

Odd-man-out questions present a group of elements, numbers or words, where all except one follow a specific pattern or share a common characteristic. Your task is to identify the element that does not fit the pattern.

Strategies for Solving Odd Man-Out Questions

• Read Thoroughly: Carefully read the given group of elements and understand the pattern that most of them follow.
• Identify the Pattern: Determine the common characteristic, rule or pattern that applies to the majority of the elements.
• Compare and Contrast: Compare each element to the others and look for differences or deviations from the established pattern.
• Eliminate Obvious Choices: If one element clearly stands out as being different from the others, consider it as a potential odd man out.
• Consider Multiple Patterns: Be open to the possibility that there may be multiple patterns in the group and focus on the one that is most consistent.
• Use Options: If provided with multiple-choice options, test each option by comparing it to the established pattern to see which one doesn’t fit.

Example 1: Odd Number Out:

Identify the odd number out from the following group:

4, 9, 16, 25, 32

Odd Number Out: 32 (All other numbers are perfect squares.)

Example 2: Odd Letter Out:

Identify the odd letter out from the following group:

B, E, H, K, O

Odd Letter Out: O (All other letters are three positions apart in the alphabet.)

Example 3: Odd Shape Out:

Identify the odd shape out from the following group:

Circle, Triangle, Square, Rectangle, Pentagon

Odd Shape Out: Triangle (All other shapes have four sides.)

Example 4: Odd Word Out:

Identify the odd word out from the following group:

Apple, Banana, Orange, Tomato, Mango

Odd Word Out: Tomato (All other words represent fruits that are typically sweet.)

Example 5: Odd Element Out:

Identify the odd element out from the following group:

3, 7, 11, 13, 21

Odd Element Out: 21 (All other numbers are prime.)

18. Strategies for Solving Logical Venn Diagrams

Logical Venn diagrams are graphical representations used to show the relationships between different sets or groups of elements. 

These diagrams are often employed in competitive exams to assess your ability to analyse data and draw logical conclusions. 

Understanding Logical Venn Diagrams

Logical Venn diagrams consist of overlapping circles that represent different sets or categories of elements. The intersections between the circles indicate elements that belong to multiple sets.

Strategies for Solving Logical Venn Diagrams

• Read the Instructions: Carefully read the given information and instructions for the Venn diagram. Understand the categories and relationships being depicted.
• Analyse Set Overlaps: Examine the intersections between the circles to determine which elements belong to multiple sets.
• Identify Relationships: Look for relationships, commonalities or differences among the sets based on the information provided.
• Fill in Information: If some portions of the Venn diagram are already filled in, use that information to deduce the positions of other elements.
• Use Symbols: Use symbols (like ⊂ for “is a subset of” and ∩ for “intersection”) to indicate relationships between sets.
• Consider Exclusions: Pay attention to elements that are not included in any circle, as well as those that are included in all circles.
• Apply Logical Reasoning: Apply logical reasoning to determine the most accurate placement of elements within the Venn diagram.

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